Deck 12: Traumatic Disease

Question 1

Which medical organization(s)has/have determined that CT of the cervical spine has greater than 99% sensitivity for the detection of a fracture?
1)American College of Radiology
2)American College of Surgeons
3)National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study (NEXUS)
4)Canadian C-Spine Review (CCR)

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) All of the above.

Answer 1

3 and 4

Question 2

What is the term commonly used to describe fractures involving the epiphysis of children?

A) Glasgow scale
B) Trauma scale
C) Salter-Harris
D) Fracture scale

Answer 2

Salter-Harris

Question 3

What imaging modality is best utilized for skeletal trauma?

A) Radiography
B) CT
C) MR
D) Nuclear medicine

Answer 3

Radiography

Question 4

Which of the following types of trauma centers require prompt access to orthopedic and neurologic services?
1)Level I
2)Level II
3)Level III
4)Level IV

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 4 only
D) All of the above.

Question 5

What is the most common type of fracture associated with the vertebrae?

A) Burst fracture
B) Compression fracture
C) Spondylolisthesis
D) Pars defect

Question 6

When analyzing cervical spine radiographs of the trauma patient, what is not a significant consideration?

A) Prevertebral fat stripe
B) Size and shape of vertebral structures
C) Nucleus pulposus
D) Alignment of spinolaminar lines

Question 7

What type of fracture classification often occurs as a twisting or rotary movement to a long bone?

A) Transverse fracture
B) Spiral fracture
C) Impacted fracture
D) Comminuted fracture

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of a growth plate injury?

A) Avascular necrosis
B) Buckle fracture
C) Colles' fracture
D) SCFE

Question 9

Which imaging modality has superseded the use of cervical spine radiography for trauma patients?

A) Computed tomography
B) Nuclear medicine
C) Sonography
D) Angiography

Question 10

Which type of cerebral hematoma often demonstrates a midline shift on CT or MR images?

A) Intracerebral hematoma
B) Subdural hematoma
C) Epidural hematoma
D) Subarachnoid hematoma

Question 11

What type of distribution pattern do most deaths from trauma assume?

A) Monocloidal
B) Bimodal
C) Trimodal
D) Bell curve

Question 12

Which fracture classification generally requires surgical intervention such as an irrigation and debridement?

A) Closed
B) Buckle
C) Open
D) Impacted

Question 13

Which of the following is not a secondary assessment or vital sign of the patient who has sustained a traumatic injury?

A) Pulse
B) Blood pressure
C) Respiration
D) Range of motion of the head and neck

Question 14

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale number recommended by the New Orleans helical computed tomography rule (HCT)to order a CT head examination for a traumatic head injury in conjunction with a headache or intoxication?

A) 1-5
B) 6-10
C) 10-13
D) 15

Question 15

What is the preferred modality for imaging trauma to the abdomen and pelvis?

A) Radiography
B) Magnetic resonance
C) Computed tomography
D) Sonography

Question 16

Trauma is the leading cause for which of the following age groups?

A) 1-44 years
B) 45-50 years
C) 40-65 years
D) 60-75 years

Question 17

Which type of cerebral hematoma has the highest mortality rate?

A) Intracerebral hematoma
B) Subdural hematoma
C) Epidural hematoma
D) Subarachnoid hematoma

Question 18

What pathologic condition following trauma to the head is characterized by headache, vertigo, and vomiting?

A) Contusion
B) Coup lesion
C) Contrecoup lesion
D) Concussion

Question 19

With a basilar skull fracture, what anatomic structure is important radiographically?

A) Sphenoid sinus
B) Ethmoid sinuses
C) Maxillary sinuses
D) Frontal sinuses

Question 20

What classification is given to a fracture that fails to heal?

A) Delayed union
B) Poor union
C) Malunion
D) Nonunion

Question 21

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Smith fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 22

The radiographic "football sign" is usually indicative of what pathologic condition?

A) Ileus
B) Perforated ulcer
C) Pneumoperitoneum
D) Pneumothorax

Question 23

According to the ACR, which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate in assessing abdominal trauma?

A) CT
B) MRI
C) Radiography
D) Sonography

Question 24

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Colles' fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 25

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Boxer's fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 26

What anatomic structures are common areas for fatigue fractures?

A) Metatarsals
B) Metacarpals
C) Distal radius
D) Distal tibia

Question 27

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Monteggia fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 28

Which of the following structures form the bony nasal septum?
1)Vomer
2)Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
3)Cribriform plate

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 29

Bilateral shoulder radiographs are generally obtained to diagnose shoulder dislocations.

Question 30

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Bennett's fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 31

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Maisonneuve fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 32

Which radiographic chest projections are generally obtained for the diagnosis of a pneumothorax?
1)PA with inspiration
2)PA with expiration
3)Lateral with inspiration

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 33

Which imaging modality best demonstrates avascular necrosis?

A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Radiography

Question 34

A high school football player sustained a stress injury to his right knee and was diagnosed with a medial meniscal tear.What additional pathology may be demonstrated on the MRI exam?

A) Impacted fracture of the hip
B) Bone bruise of the medial femoral condyle
C) Salter Harris fracture of the distal fibula
D) Avascular necrosis of the proximal femur

Question 35

Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.


Pott's fracture

A)Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
B)Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
C)Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
D)Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
E)Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
F)Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
G)Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint

Question 36

Which bone has the slowest healing time following traumatic injury?

A) Maxilla
B) Mandible
C) Malar
D) Nasal

Question 37

Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of battered child syndrome?

A) Impacted radial fracture
B) Multiple rib fractures
C) Spiral fracture of a long bone
D) Skull fracture

Question 38

What pathology can cause a mediastinal shift on a chest radiograph?

A) Lobar bibasilar atelectasis
B) Pleurisy
C) Pneumonia
D) Rib fracture

Question 39

Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?

A) Maxilla
B) Mandible
C) Malar
D) Nasal