Deck 18: The Foot

Question 1

Please check all of the activities that are classified as functional activities of the foot.

A) Hopping
B) Carioca
C) Towel gathering
D) Ankle circumduction
E) BAPS board exercises
F) Cutting
G) Jogging
H) Stretching the soleus

Answer 1

Hopping
Carioca
Cutting
Jogging

Question 2

Select only the body parts that make up thepassive subsystem of the foot core system.

A) Muscles
B) Ligaments plus bony congruency of the joints
C) Sensory receptors
D) Plantar fascia
E) Joint capsules

Answer 2

Ligaments plus bony congruency of the joints
Plantar fascia

Question 3

Select only the tarsal bones that articulate with at least five or more bones.

A) Calcaneus
B) Navicular
C) Cuboid
D) Talus
E) Medial cuneiform

Answer 3

Navicular
Cuboid

Question 4

Which of the following actions is permitted by the metatarsophalangeal joints?

A) 360 degree rotation of the phalanges
B) Hinge action of the phalanges
C) Eversion of the calcaneus
D) Inversion of the calcaneus
E) Pronation of the subtalar joint

Question 5

What structure in the foot functions to assist in reducing pressure in weight bearing?

A) Talus
B) Calcaneus
C) Sesamoid
D) Navicular
E) Tubercle

Question 6

What structure in the foot is the main weight-bearing support during walking and running?

A) Calcaneus
B) Medial longitudinal arch
C) Tarsal bones
D) Ligaments of the foot
E) First metatarsal joint

Question 7

Why is full dorsiflexion the most stable position of the talocrural joint?

A) Because the talus is broader anteriorly than posteriorly
B) Because the subtalar joint limits dorsiflexion
C) Because the talus is narrower anteriorly than posteriorly
D) Because the calcaneus is wider posteriorly
E) Because the calcaneus is narrower posteriorly

Question 8

In the context of the talocrucal joint, which of the following is the average range of motion in dorsiflexion?

A) 10 degrees
B) 20 degrees
C) 30 degrees
D) 40 degrees
E) 50 degrees

Question 9

Which of the following structures supports the foot against downward forces?

A) Cuboid bone
B) Navicular tubercle
C) Plantar fascia
D) Achilles tendon
E) Distal phalanx

Question 10

Which of the following ligaments connects the shafts of the metatarsals?

A) Interphalangeal ligaments
B) Metatarsophalangeal ligaments
C) Plantar ligaments
D) Interosseous ligaments
E) Dorsal ligaments

Question 11

Which of the following joints consists of the calcaneocuboid and the talonavicular joints?

A) Subtalar joint
B) Midtarsal joint
C) Tarsometatarsal joint
D) Intermetatarsal joint
E) Metatarsophalangeal joint

Question 12

Which articulation of the foot is known as Lisfranc's joint?

A) Interphalangeal joints
B) Metatarsophalangeal joints
C) Intermetatarsal joints
D) Tarsometatarsal joints
E) Midtarsal joints

Question 13

Which of the following movements occur at the subtalar joint?

A) Inversion and eversion
B) Dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion
C) Pronation and supination
D) Pronation, supination, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion
E) Inversion, eversion, pronation, and supination

Question 14

Which of the following motions would be unlikely to occur at the subtalar joint?

A) Inversion
B) Pronation
C) Dorsiflexion
D) Eversion
E) Supination

Question 15

What statement is TRUE regarding gait?

A) There is no non-weight-bearing period or phase with a walking gait.
B) At midstance and terminal stance the body is supported by both limbs at initial contact of a walking gait.
C) In running, the stance phase accounts for one-quarter of the gait cycle.
D) In running, there is a time when neither foot is in contact with the ground and no time when both feet contact the ground simultaneously.
E) In the running gait, initial contact of the foot usually occurs on the medial aspect of the calcaneus.

Question 16

What is a compensating action at the subtalar joint when structural or functional deformities exist in the foot or leg?

A) Excessive pronation during the stance phase will cause the midtarsal joint to remain unlocked, resulting in an excessively loose foot.
B) At heel strike in prolonged or excessive supination, the midtarsal joint will lock, causing the foot to remain excessively loose.
C) Excessive supination limits tibial external rotation.
D) Prolonged pronation will not allow the foot to resupinate in time to provide a rigid lever for heel strike.
E) In the pronated position, the peroneus longus tendon loses its ability to stabilize the first ray, making it hypomobile.

Question 17

The body is supported by a single limb in which period of the stance phase of a normal gait cycle?

A) Initial contact
B) Loading response
C) Terminal stance
D) Initial stance
E) Terminal swing

Question 18

What would be considered an ideal shoe for the pronated foot?

A) Less flexible with good rearfoot control
B) More flexible with a medial wedge
C) Less flexible with a lateral wedge
D) More flexible with good rearfoot control
E) Less flexible with a wider toebox

Question 19

In the history section of a foot assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate question to ask the patient?

A) Is this the first time this condition has occurred?
B) Was the mechanism of injury a sudden strain, twist, or blow to the foot?
C) Is there muscle weakness?
D) Do you have flat feet?
E) Can you point to an exact site of pain?

Question 20

In the observation section of a foot assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate action to perform?

A) Assessing foot alignment
B) Assessing if the foot changes color when weight bearing and non-weight bearing
C) Assessing the patient's pain level
D) Assessing an antalgic gait
E) Assessing for deformity, swelling, or discoloration

Question 21

What position should the foot/ankle be in when observing for structural deformities?

A) Extreme dorsiflexion
B) Extreme plantarflexion
C) Relaxed
D) Neutral
E) Subtalar neutral

Question 22

Which of the following would be unable to be discovered during the palpation section of a foot assessment?

A) Pulse
B) Ligamentous integrity
C) Swelling
D) Pain
E) Deformities

Question 23

Which of the following injuries to the tarsal region commonly occurs from landing after a jump or due to a fall from a height?

A) Fracture of the talus
B) Fracture of the calcaneus
C) Cuboid subluxation
D) Tarsometatarsal dislocation
E) Retrocalcaneal bursitis

Question 24

Of the injuries that can be sustained in the tarsal region of the foot, which of the following has an etiology of a severe inversion and dorsiflexion force or medially from an inversion and plantar flexion force with external rotation of the tibia on the talus?

A) Fractured talus
B) Fractured calcaneus
C) Calcaneal stress fracture
D) Sever's disease
E) Heel contusion

Question 25

If a patient is suffering from metatarsalgia they would have which of the following symptoms?

A) Pain in the ball of the foot
B) Pain radiating down the foot
C) Pain in the 5^th metatarsal
D) Pain in the medial arch of the foot
E) Pain at the heel of the foot

Question 26

Which of the following is the most common location for a metatarsal stress fracture?

A) Shaft of the 1^st metatarsal
B) Shaft of the 2^nd metatarsal
C) Shaft of the 3^rd metatarsal
D) Shaft of the 4^th metatarsal
E) Shaft of the 5^th metatarsal

Question 27

What is the cause of a turf toe injury?

A) Hyperflexion of the great toe
B) Hyperextension of the great toe
C) Fracture of the great toe
D) Dislocation of the great toe
E) Subluxation of the great toe

Question 28

Which of the following injuries causes pain at the posterior heel below the attachment of the Achilles tendon insertion?

A) Sever's disease
B) Cuboid subluxation
C) Lisfranc injury
D) Retrocalcaneal bursitis
E) Jones fracture

Question 29

Which of the following is often a complication of retrocalcaneal bursitis?

A) Neuroma
B) Metatarsalgia
C) Apophysitis
D) Exostoses
E) Apophysis

Question 30

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of pes planus?

A) Forefoot valgus
B) Heavy callus development on the ball of the foot
C) Heavy callus development of the heel of the foot
D) Hammer toes
E) Bulging of the navicular bone

Question 31

A patient is suffering from plantar fasciitis. Which of the following modalities would best assist a patient who is in the repair or remodeling phase?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 32

Please identify the area of the foot where a Jones fracture would most likely occur.

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 33

This figure demonstrates which of the following conditions?

A) Sesamoiditis
B) Pes cavus
C) Pes planus
D) Metatarsalgia
E) Hallux valgus deformity

Question 34

This type of pad (see below) can be used to treat all of the following problemsEXCEPT for which condition?

A) Heel contusion
B) Retrocalcaneal bursitis
C) Hallux valgus deformity
D) A blister
E) Morton's neuroma

Question 35

Please identify the area where callus develops on a person who is suffering from metatarsalgia.

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 36

Which of the following is a painful condition caused by the proliferation of bony spurs on the dorsal aspect of the first metatarsophalangeal joint?

A) Hallux rigidus
B) Subungual hematoma
C) Mallet toe
D) Morton's neuroma
E) Jones fracture

Question 37

Which of the following would cause a subungual hematoma?

A) Kicking an object
B) Running sprints
C) Jumping
D) Skipping
E) Hopping

Question 38

Which of the following joint mobilization techniques decreases hypomobility of the metatarsals?

A) Anterior and posterior calcaneocuboid glides
B) Anterior and posterior cuboidmetatarsals glides
C) Anterior and posterior tarsometatarsal glides
D) Anterior and posterior talonavicular glides
E) Anterior and posterior metatarsophalangeal glides