Deck 12: On-The-Field Acute Care and Emergency Procedures

Question 1

Please click the appropriate information that would be included in a general Emergency Action Plan (EAP).

A) Sports medicine staff names
B) Roles of first responders
C) Directions to team physician's office
D) Venue directions / locations
E) CPR / first aid instructions
F) Football secretary's office phone number
G) Emergency equipment available
H) Sports medicine staff phone numbers
I) Emergency personnel
J) Directions to activate emergency medical system
K) Location of emergency communications (phones)
L) Athletes' parents' phone numbers

Answer 1

Sports medicine staff names
Roles of first responders
Venue directions / locations
Emergency equipment available
Sports medicine staff phone numbers
Emergency personnel
Directions to activate emergency medical system
Location of emergency communications (phones)

Question 2

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.
Functional sign when evaluating the unconscious patient:
- Usually sudden, or sudden onset

A) Fainting
B) Concussion
C) Grand mal epilepsy
D) Brain compression & injury
E) Heatstroke
F) Diabetic coma
G) Shock

Answer 2

Fainting
Concussion
Grand mal epilepsy
Heatstroke

Question 3

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.
Functional sign when evaluating the unconscious patient:
- Fast and weak pulse

A) Fainting
B) Concussion
C) Grand mal epilepsy
D) Brain compression & injury
E) Heatstroke
F) Diabetic coma
G) Shock

Answer 3

Fainting
Grand mal epilepsy
Heatstroke
Diabetic coma
Shock

Question 4

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.
Functional sign when evaluating the unconscious patient:
- Shallow respiration

A) Fainting
B) Concussion
C) Grand mal epilepsy
D) Brain compression & injury
E) Heatstroke
F) Diabetic coma
G) Shock

Question 5

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.
Functional sign when evaluating the unconscious patient:
- Equal and dilated pupils

A) Fainting
B) Concussion
C) Grand mal epilepsy
D) Brain compression & injury
E) Heatstroke
F) Diabetic coma
G) Shock

Question 6

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.
Functional sign when evaluating the unconscious patient:
- Vomiting

A) Fainting
B) Concussion
C) Grand mal epilepsy
D) Brain compression & injury
E) Heatstroke
F) Diabetic coma
G) Shock

Question 7

Please identify which of the following are vital signs.

A) Movement
B) Pupils
C) Reflex
D) Pulse
E) Rigidity
F) Severe bleeding
G) Temperature
H) Respiration
I) Deformity

Question 8

A patient states that her lower leg hurts. Please identify which of the following questions would be appropriate in taking a history for a musculoskeletal injury.

A) What were you doing prior to getting hurt?
B) What did you eat for breakfast?
C) Did you hear any noises when the injury occurred
D) Have you ever hurt this leg before?
E) Were you wearing socks?
F) What type of pain are you experiencing?
G) Do you suffer from high blood pressure?
H) Did you notice any swelling, discoloration, or deformity after the injury?
I) How often do you buy new shoes?

Question 9

Which of the following steps is not one of the more important matters to address when developing an Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?

A) Determining the number of personnel who will be on the field during practices and competitions.
B) Making sure means of communication are readily accessible.
C) Establishing specific procedures and policies for removal of protective equipment.
D) Assigning someone to contact the parents of an injured patient.
E) Informing and annually practicing the emergency plan so that all individuals involved know their responsibilities.

Question 10

If EMS is called to the scene of an athletic injury, who should have the final say on how the patient should be transported?

A) Athletic trainer (AT)
B) Physician
C) Emergency medical technician (EMT)
D) Coach
E) Anesthesia care team (ACT)

Question 11

When dealing with an athlete who is a minor, which of the following types of consent would be a liability?

A) Written consent obtained before emergency
B) Verbal consent
C) Implied consent
D) Inferred consent
E) Written consent obtained during an emergency

Question 12

Which of the following actions would be considered an act of negligence when dealing with an unconscious patient?

A) If the patient is prone and breathing, the patient should be provided life support only after emergency medical personnel arrive.
B) If the patient is supine and not breathing, ABCs should be established immediately.
C) If a patient is wearing protective equipment, rescuers should immediately remove it to expose the airway.
D) If the patient is supine and breathing, monitor closely until the patient regains consciousness.
E) If the patient is prone and not breathing, the patient should be log-rolled.

Question 13

What is the purpose of the primary survey?

A) To determine how many emergency personnel are needed to handle the situation.
B) To determine the existence of potentially life-threatening situations.
C) To determine the need to obtain consent to treat.
D) To determine the need to gather splinting equipment.
E) To determine how the patient will be transported off the field/court.

Question 14

When performing the primary survey, which of the following would be assessed during the secondary survey?

A) Shock
B) Airway obstruction
C) Profuse bleeding
D) No breathing
E) Compound fracture

Question 15

When giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation to a child, after establishing unresponsiveness and calling 911, what should be the next step ?

A) Look for no breathing and check pulse.
B) Compress chest about 2 inches.
C) Perform 30 compressions.
D) Perform mouth-to-mouth breathing after opening the airway.
E) Perform bag-valve-mask respirations.

Question 16

When trying to establish circulation by performing compressions in an unconscious adult athlete, a healthcare provider should take no more than _____ to check for a pulse at the carotid artery.

A) 35 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 10 seconds
D) 20 seconds
E) 25 seconds

Question 17

During a primary survey, if the response illustrated in the picture were to occur, what would be the next step?

A) Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
B) Initiate rescue breathing
C) Tilt the head to open the airway
D) Call EMS / 911
E) Re-tap the victim to confirm unresponsiveness

Question 18

What is the purpose of performing the maneuver that is illustrated in the picture?

A) To open the esophagus
B) To release constriction of arterial flow to the brain
C) To raise the tongue away from the back of the throat
D) To push the tongue on the bottom of the mouth
E) To open the airway through the nostrils

Question 19

When establishing breathing, if it is confirmed that there is no visual rise and fall of the chest and the airway has been opened properly, what is the next step?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 20

The use of the apparatus illustrated in this picture can provide about the same amount of oxygen that a person normally breathing would intake. What is that percentage value?

A) 7 percent
B) 16 percent
C) 21 percent
D) 45 percent
E) 90 percent

Question 21

In the following illustration, what is the correct numerical value assigned to the correct action?

A) 15-20 chest compressions for every cycle
B) Two breaths provided after 100 chest compressions
C) Five cycles of chest compressions to breaths within a minute period
D) One breath for every cycle
E) 100-120 chest compressions per minute

Question 22

If a conscious victim with an obstructed airway eventually becomes unresponsive, which of the following pictures should be the athletic trainer's immediate next step?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 23

Please identify each of the correct locations on the victim's chest to place Automated External Defibrillator (AED) pads.

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 24

Which of the following types of shock is caused by the general dilation of blood vessels within the cardiovascular system?

A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Neurogenic shock
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Septic shock
E) Metabolic shock

Question 25

Which of the following types of shock refers to an extreme loss of body fluid?

A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Neurogenic shock
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Septic shock
E) Metabolic shock

Question 26

Which of the following is the correct pulse rate per minute for adults at rest?

A) 60 -100 beats
B) 50 -70 beats
C) 100 -120 beats
D) 80 -120 beats
E) 120-140 beats

Question 27

According to the American Heart Association, with which of the following values will an individual be considered prehypertensive?

A) Systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure 80 -89 mm Hg
B) Systolic blood pressure 140 -159 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure less than 80 mm Hg
C) Systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure less than 80 mm Hg
D) Systolic blood pressure 120 -139 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure 80-89 mm Hg
E) Systolic blood pressure 160 mm Hg or higher; diastolic blood pressure 100 mm Hg or higher

Question 28

__________ occurs from a severe, usually bacterial, infection.

A) Septic shock
B) Anaphylactic shock
C) Metabolic shock
D) Psychogenic shock

Question 29

A patient presents with a constricted pupil. Which of the following would most likely be the source of the problem?

A) Heatstroke
B) Shock
C) Hemorrhage
D) Ingesting central nervous system depressant drug
E) Brain injury

Question 30

A patient has been thrown from a bull during a rodeo in which a fractured pelvis is suspected. Which of the following emergency splinting techniques would be the most appropriate?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 31

A patient is suffering from a fracture and dislocation of the ankle. Which of the following emergency splinting techniques would be the most appropriate?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 32

Identify an accurate statement about protecting a damaged tissue from further injury.

A) Subjecting an injured part to external stresses can interfere with the essential biological processes in the acute inflammatory stage of the healing process.
B) Most experts recommend aggressive ambulation and extensive periods of rest after trauma.
C) Experts recommend long periods of protection (crutches, braces, etc.) following acute soft tissue injury, which includes rest and immobilization.
D) Once a tissue is injured, it takes a long time for the healing process to begin.
E) Protection is the key element for preventing chronic inflammation.

Question 33

Which of the following statements is true about an air splint?

A) It provides moderate pressure to an injured body part and affords a clear view of the site for X-ray examination.
B) It is made with a thin sheet of soft, pliable aluminum covered by padding.
C) It consists of styrofoam chips contained inside an airtight cloth sleeve that is pliable.
D) It is most useful for injuries that are angulated and must be splinted in the position in which they were found.

Question 34

Of the pieces of the equipment that could be used to remove the football helmet face mask fastener, which one has been shown to be faster and produce less torque on the helmet?

A) Trainers Angel
B) Scissors
C) FM Extractor
D) Screwdriver (electric)
E) Anvil Pruner

Question 35

Which of the following is a type of stretcher that has detachable hinges at each end and thus can be split into two halves?

A) Scoop stretcher
B) Stokes stretcher
C) Litter
D) Vacuum mattress
E) Half / Short Board

Question 36

If a patient has a grade 2 lateral ankle sprain, which of the following ambulatory techniques would be best if the patient is to be completely non-weight bearing?

A) Four point crutch gait
B) Tripod method
C) Cane on the affected side
D) Cane on the unaffected side
E) Crutch on the unaffected side

Question 37

If a patient is partial weight bearing, which of the following ambulatory techniques would be most appropriate?

A) Crutch on the affected side
B) Crutch on the unaffected side
C) Cane on the affected side
D) Cane on the unaffected side
E) Crutch or cane on the unaffected side

Question 38

What is the purpose of the performing the maneuver that is illustrated in the picture?

A) To open the esophagus
B) To release constriction of arterial flow to the brain
C) To raise the tongue away from the back of the throat
D) To push the tongue on the bottom of the mouth
E) To open the airway through the nostrils

Question 39

When establishing breathing and it is confirmed there is no visual rise and fall of the chest and the airway has been opened properly, what is the next step?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 40

If an obstructed airway victim were to fall to ground unconscious, select from the following pictures the athletic trainer's immediate next step?

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Question 41

Which of the following is the correct pulse rate per minute for adults at rest?

A) 80-100 beats
B) 60-100 beats
C) 50-70 beats
D) 100-120 beats
E) 80-120 beats

Question 42

According to the American Heart Association an individual will be considered prehypertensive with which of the following values?

A) Systolic less than 120 mmHg; diastolic 80-89 mmHg
B) Systolic 140-159 mmHg; diastolic less than 80 mmHg
C) Systolic less than 120 mmHg; diastolic less than 80 mmHg
D) Systolic 120-139 mmHg; diastolic 80-89 mmHg
E) Systolic 160 mmHg or higher; diastolic 100 mmHg or higher

Question 43

How do you measure to find the appropriate length for this airway adjunct device?

A) Measure the length from the patient's jaw to their nose.
B) Measure the length from the patient's nose to their chin.
C) Measure the length from the patient's tongue.
D) Measure the length from the patient's corner of the mouth to the same side earlobe.
E) Measure the length from the patient's corner of the mouth to the opposite side earlobe.

Question 44

What is this airway adjunct device in the figure?

A) OPA
B) NPA
C) Suction device
D) Supraglottic airway
E) King-Devick device