Deck 6: Motivation and the Regulation of Internal States

Question 1

Which of the following is true of instincts?

A) They are mechanisms for maintaining balance in the body.
B) They are incentives to behave in a particular manner.
C) They are complex behaviors that are learned, or not automatic, and occur in all members of a species.
D) They are complex behaviors that are automatic and unlearned and occur in all members of a species.

Answer 1

They are complex behaviors that are automatic and unlearned and occur in all members of a species.

Question 2

Drive theory mostly explains which type of behavior?

A) physical needs such as hunger and thirst
B) emotions
C) cognitive behaviors
D) human needs to succeed

Answer 2

physical needs such as hunger and thirst

Question 3

Which of the following is most consistent with drive theory?

A) Humans can be motivated by external stimuli as well as internal.
B) Once we reach homeostasis, we are happy and content.
C) The optimal level for a behavior occurs when a drive is happening.
D) Departures from equilibrium result in motivation to engage in behaviors that will restore equilibrium.

Answer 3

Departures from equilibrium result in motivation to engage in behaviors that will restore equilibrium.

Question 4

Which of the following is a criticism of drive theory?

A) External stimuli do not show an ability to alter behavior.
B) Only lower animals can be shown to have drives.
C) Many behaviors are not related to satisfying tissue needs.
D) Behaviors cannot be understood solely by looking at the preferred level of stimulation for people.

Question 5

Incentive theory states that motivation is a way to ______.

A) obtain external rewards
B) meet internal needs
C) fulfill needs for arousal
D) maintain homeostasis

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of an incentive?

A) approval from a loved one
B) thrill
C) danger
D) challenge

Question 7

According to incentive theory, one way to motivate a child to keep a clean room would be ______.

A) to lecture the child about the importance of cleanliness
B) a weekly allowance for keeping a clean room
C) to wait until the child felt like cleaning the room
D) for the parent to keep a clean room as an example

Question 8

Sensation seeking and arousal theory both suggest that motivated behavior results in increased ______ release in the brain.

A) serotonin
B) glutamate
C) GABA
D) dopamine

Question 9

Drives are now viewed as which of the following?

A) brain states
B) tissue deficits
C) sources of arousal
D) external rewards

Question 10

Which of the following motivated behaviors would be hardest to explain using drive theory?

A) Harry goes to a fast food restaurant because he is hungry after not eating for several hours.
B) Luanne fills up her water bottle at the drinking fountain after she becomes thirsty.
C) Marian orders a pizza after seeing a commercial for Dominos, even though she has just eaten lunch.
D) Oliver eats a steak after feeling hungry and anemic.

Question 11

Which of the following motivated behaviors would be hardest to explain using drive theory?

A) A cat in heat mates with another cat.
B) A squirrel eats a piece of bread at the park after going hungry all night.
C) Your dog drinks some water after being outside on a hot, humid day.
D) Rats who are food deprived for a research study later press levers to obtain food.

Question 12

Which of the following best describes how the motivation to eat is satisfied?

A) Once your body cells receive the nutrients that you have consumed, eating drive is reduced.
B) Once neurotransmitters inform the brain that food has been eaten, eating drive is reduced.
C) The cells of the body that receive nutrients can override abnormal brain signals to stop eating drive in people like Christopher from the beginning of the book chapter.
D) Body tissues first detect new nutrients and then send signals to the brain, which reduces eating drive.

Question 13

When the current condition does not equal the set point, which of the following is true?

A) Motivation will decrease and the organism will wait until the current situation changes.
B) Motivation will decrease so the organism is more likely to behave randomly.
C) The organism will be motivated to behave to return the drive to the set point.
D) The organism will be in a temporary state of satisfaction until the drive returns to the set point and motivates directed behavior.

Question 14

Which of the following is true of endothermic animals?

A) They regulate body temperature through the use of energy reserves.
B) They do not have to regulate body temperature.
C) They cannot regulate body temperature internally.
D) They have a very wide range of acceptable body temperatures.

Question 15

What can an ectothermic animal, if cold, do to regulate its body temperature?

A) begin sweating to cool off
B) burrow in the ground to get warmer
C) constrict peripheral blood vessels
D) regulate body temperature through the use of energy reserves

Question 16

Carla had been outside for most of the evening at a football game. As the sun began to set, she started experiencing coldness. How would Carla's body respond in this situation to maintain a safe body temperature?

A) She would begin to sweat.
B) Her metabolism would increase.
C) Blood vessels in her arms and legs would dilate.
D) She would feel less hungry.

Question 17

Where does the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus receive temperature information from?

A) pain receptors in the skin
B) cells in the frontal lobe
C) sensors in the eyes
D) temperature of the blood flowing into that area

Question 18

How long can a person live without water?

A) a few hours
B) a few days
C) two weeks
D) four weeks

Question 19

Which of the following is true of the two types of thirst?

A) One is with respect to water levels in the cells and one is with respect to water content in the blood.
B) One is with respect to water levels in the cells and one is with respect to water content in the urine.
C) One is with respect to water content in the blood and one is with respect to water content in the urine.
D) One is with respect to water content in the skin and one is with respect to water levels in the cells.

Question 20

When does osmotic thirst occur?

A) when the individual has taken in more food than water
B) when there has been excessive blood loss
C) when the fluid content inside cells decreases
D) when the individual has been vomiting from the flu

Question 21

Corporal Phillips was bleeding heavily from a gunshot in his leg. Phillips was desperate for something to drink because of ______ thirst.

A) hypovolemic
B) hypervolemic
C) hypothalamic
D) osmotic

Question 22

Osmotic thirst is detected by the ______.

A) organum vasculosum lamina terminalis
B) nucleus of the solitary tract
C) vagus nerve
D) subfornical organ

Question 23

Which of the following brain structures is important for initiating thirst following a drop in water content of cells in the body?

A) the nucleus of the solitary tract
B) the subfornical organ
C) the median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
D) the vagus nerve

Question 24

Which of the following is true of the subfornical organ?

A) It is important for responding to osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.
B) It is important for responding to only hypovolemic thirst.
C) It is important for responding to only osmotic thirst.
D) It is protected by the blood-brain barrier.

Question 25

How does the hypovolemic thirst signal get from the kidneys to the brain?

A) Signals are sent from the organum vasculosum lamina terminalis.
B) The vagus nerve sends signals from the heart to the brain.
C) The kidneys prompt release and production of hormones renin and angiotensin II.
D) The median preoptic nucleus detects low water volume directly via its blood supply.

Question 26

Compared to temperature regulation and thirst, which of the following is true of hunger?

A) Hunger is a less complicated motivated behavior.
B) Hunger cannot be described in terms of homeostasis and drive, but temperature regulation and thirst can.
C) There is a set point for temperature regulation and thirst, but not for hunger.
D) The set point for hunger can fluctuate more extremely than the set points for temperature and thirst.

Question 27

What is one reason why hunger is a more complicated motivated behavior than thirst or temperature regulation?

A) Hunger involves introducing new material into the body.
B) Hunger has to address the body needs for a variety of different nutrients.
C) Hunger has no set point.
D) Hunger does not depend on signals from the body to the brain.

Question 28

An animal that obtains all of its needed nutrients from plants is called a(n) ______.

A) carnivore
B) omnivore
C) herbivore
D) plantivore

Question 29

Based on our dietary needs, people are considered ______.

A) variovres
B) carnivores
C) herbivores
D) omnivores

Question 30

Kevin spent a lot of time taking care of his pet snake, including preparing the snake's food, mice from the local pet store. Kevin's pet snake could be best classified as a(n) ______.

A) carnivore
B) herbivore
C) omnivore
D) opportunistic eater

Question 31

Luanne sat down for dinner and bit into her steak. The delicious taste she experienced from her steak involved which taste sensation?

A) umami
B) bitter
C) sour
D) sweet

Question 32

In addition to the five primary taste senses that scientists have been studying for years, there is new evidence that people can distinguish ______ by taste.

A) colors
B) fruits
C) spiciness
D) fats

Question 33

You take a sip of milk from the carton and find that it has spoiled. You can thank your ______ taste receptors for saving you from drinking more spoiled milk.

A) sweet
B) salty
C) sour
D) bitter

Question 34

Many people dislike the taste of leafy greens such as kale or mustard greens. This makes sense, because these vegetables activate ______ taste receptors, which are also activated in response to plants that are toxic.

A) umami
B) bitter
C) sour
D) salty

Question 35

Which of the following describes the labeled line coding of different tastes?

A) Information about salty, sweet, and umami is all detected by the same taste receptors.
B) Preferred tastes and nonpreferred tastes are coded by different taste receptors.
C) The pathway for each taste sensation appears differently when viewed under a microscope.
D) Separate cortical areas in the insula receive information from different taste receptors.

Question 36

Ed was competing in a food eating contest to see who could finish 12 scoops of ice cream in one sitting. He started feeling ill after 9 scoops, but after eating some salty crackers, he was able to finish. What taste phenomenon supports Ed's strategy?

A) learned taste preference
B) learned taste aversion
C) labeled lines
D) sensory-specific satiety

Question 37

Ed was competing in a food eating contest to see who could finish 12 scoops of ice cream in one sitting. He started feeling ill after 9 scoops but was able to eat several salty crackers. What brain area was responsible for Ed's decreasing desire for ice cream?

A) the nucleus of the solitary tract
B) the median preoptic area of the hypothalamus
C) the organum vasculosum lamina terminalis
D) the lateral hypothalamus

Question 38

Judy and her friends had just finished dinner at their favorite Italian restaurant when the waiter came to the table with a cart of dessert items and asked if anyone wanted to order dessert. Based on what you know about sensory-specific satiety, what do you think might have happened?

A) No one will order dessert because they are all full.
B) Only the people with a "sweet tooth" will order dessert.
C) People who had salty or protein-based food for dinner will be more likely to order dessert than those who had sweeter foods for dinner.
D) People who had sweet foods for dinner will be more likely to order dessert than those who had salty or protein-based foods for dinner.

Question 39

Which conclusion is most warranted, given the results of Clara Davis's study of food choices in infants?

A) Infants have an innate preference for healthy foods.
B) Infants have an innate preference for sweet foods.
C) Infants vary their food preferences over days to obtain different nutrients.
D) Infants are not capable of choosing healthy foods for themselves.

Question 40

What would be the best way for a parent to apply the results of Clara Davis's research on infant food preferences to encourage healthy eating of their children?

A) Infants should be given the chance to choose from healthy and unhealthy foods.
B) Infants should be given the same food every day for at least a month.
C) Infants should be given access to multiple healthy foods every day and allowed to choose from those.
D) Once an infant has rejected a food item twice, the parent should not offer it again because the infant does not like that item.

Question 41

Which of the following could be concluded from the study of learned taste aversion in children undergoing chemotherapy?

A) Learned taste aversions only last for a few days.
B) People can only learn to avoid food that is sour or bitter in taste.
C) People can only learn to avoid food that is poisonous.
D) Learned taste aversions last for months to years.

Question 42

People and other animals tend to avoid food that has been associated with ______.

A) feeling well
B) increased energy
C) nutrient deficiency
D) sugar

Question 43

Sean ate chili one night for dinner. Later that night, he came down with the flu and was sick to his stomach. Now Sean cannot even tolerate the smell of chili. What phenomenon accounts for Sean's reaction to chili?

A) learned taste preference
B) learned taste aversion
C) sensory-specific satiety
D) labeled lines

Question 44

Dominick's dog had surgery on Tuesday to remove a cyst. Aside from some vomiting on the day of the surgery, the dog's recovery went smoothly, but by Saturday his dog was still refusing to eat its dog food. What might account for the dog's behavior?

A) The dog associated postoperative illness with the taste of its food.
B) The dog associated the taste of its food with nutrient deficiency.
C) The dog experienced sensory-specific satiety.
D) The dog experienced learned taste preference.

Question 45

Which of the following is nutrient deficiency likely to produce?

A) taste-specific satiety
B) decreased food sampling
C) a preference for the taste of a food associated with the deficiency
D) a preference for the taste of a food associated with the deficient nutrient

Question 46

Which of the following has been shown in adult humans?

A) They make fairly good nutritive choices in the long run.
B) They make poor nutritive choices when faced with distracting choices such as intense flavors.
C) They lack the ability to make good nutritive choices.
D) They only make good nutritive choices when not pressed for time.

Question 47

Which of the following is true regarding digestion?

A) Digestion involves quickly releasing partially processed food into the small intestine so energy is readily available to the rest of the body.
B) Digestion begins in the stomach when the enzymes hydrochloric acid and pepsin begin to break down the food.
C) Digestion begins in the mouth when the saliva enzymes hydrochloric acid and pepsin begin to break down the food.
D) Digestion begins in the mouth when saliva enzymes begin to break down the food and provide lubrication.

Question 48

Where in the digestive system can the body rid itself of ingested toxins?

A) once foods have begun digestion in the mouth
B) once foods have begun the trip to the stomach
C) once foods have reached the stomach
D) once foods have entered the small intestine

Question 49

Which of the following occurs during digestion?

A) Proteins are converted into glucose.
B) Fats are metabolized into glycerol.
C) Toxins are neutralized by the liver.
D) Carbohydrates are transformed into amino acids.

Question 50

Jeremy ate a balanced breakfast of eggs, fruit, and toast before starting a day-long hike. Jeremy had plenty of energy for his day because of the glucose that was created from his food in his ______.

A) stomach
B) liver
C) large intestine
D) small intestine

Question 51

Nutrients are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein from the ______.

A) small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) kidney

Question 52

Jeremy was geared up for a big day of hiking and began his day with a balanced breakfast. Although he brought plenty of water with him, he was also able to stay hydrated because his ______ absorbed extra water from his food during the digestive process.

A) small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) mouth

Question 53

Which part of the nervous system controls digestion?

A) the central nervous system
B) the somatic nervous system
C) the autonomic nervous system
D) the cranial nerves

Question 54

During pregnancy, women experience changes in the digestive process. One such change is that digestion is slowed, which results in ______.

A) vomiting
B) constipation
C) diarrhea
D) dehydration

Question 55

Which of the following occurs during the absorptive phase of digestion?

A) Insulin is secreted, which enables body cells to absorb glucose and store excess nutrients.
B) Glucagon is secreted, which enables body cells to absorb glucose and store excess nutrients.
C) Insulin is secreted, which enables body cells to release glucose and excess nutrients.
D) Glucagon is secreted, which enables body cells to release glucose and excess nutrients.

Question 56

Henrietta is constantly hungry. Although her body has sufficient glucose for energy, due to ______ resistance, her body cannot use that glucose.

A) diabetes type 1
B) diabetes type 2
C) glycogen
D) insulin

Question 57

Which of the following occurs when insulin levels are low?

A) Glucagon triggers the storage of fats.
B) Glucose is available to all cells in the body.
C) Glucose is available only to the nervous system.
D) The liver converts glucose to glycerol for use in the brain.

Question 58

Ravi has begun eating his lunch. Saliva is being produced in his mouth as he starts to chew and swallow his salad. These processes are being controlled by his ______.

A) pancreas
B) stomach
C) ventromedial hypothalamus
D) lateral hypothalamus

Question 59

Which of the following occurs in the liver?

A) CCK is released to initiate eating.
B) Glucose is metabolized.
C) Fatty acid levels are monitored.
D) Blood levels signal the stomach for the feeling of fullness after a large meal.

Question 60

What results from injecting 2-DG (a nonnutrient resembling glucose) into the hepatic portal vein?

A) utilization of stored fat
B) overeating
C) starvation
D) storage of fat

Question 61

Why is the vagus nerve important to hunger?

A) It sends signals to the brain to monitor protein levels.
B) It sends signals to the PVN to monitor fat levels.
C) It sends signals about hunger from the medulla to the hypothalamus.
D) It sends signals to the medulla to keep track of nutrient levels in the body.

Question 62

When you feel full after a meal, you stop eating because ______.

A) glucose levels in the blood decrease
B) nutrients reach cells that had depleted energy
C) stretch receptors in the stomach send a message to the nucleus of the solitary tract
D) shrunken fat cells have returned to their full size

Question 63

The brain is informed of the nutrients consumed during a meal primarily via ______.

A) stretch receptors in the stomach
B) specific peptides released for the nutrients that are consumed
C) receptors in the mouth
D) taste receptors that can be modified by learning

Question 64

Which of the following is true of cholecystokinin?

A) It is a hormone that is released during the fasting stage, which signals it is time to eat.
B) When injected directly into the bloodstream of obese humans, it decreases meal size.
C) It is produced in the liver during a meal.
D) It is a hormone released in the bloodstream when fluid levels are low.

Question 65

We are not very likely to see Jennifer Hudson (or any other formerly overweight celebrity) hawking CCK as the newest weight-loss wonder because ______.

A) it causes immediate overcompensation and weight gain through excessive ghrelin production
B) animal research indicates the weight loss is accompanied by severe taste aversions
C) animals given CCK stabilize their weight loss and soon start gaining weight over time
D) animal research indicates that CCK supplements trigger smaller but more frequent meals

Question 66

One neuropeptide that increases eating in response to both short-term and long-term cues about nutrient needs is ______.

A) leptin
B) ghrelin
C) orexin
D) CCK

Question 67

Which of the following is a health risk linked to obesity?

A) skin cancer
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) bipolar disorder
D) schizophrenia

Question 68

Which of the following individuals would have an erroneously high BMI value?

A) a bodybuilder
B) a type-I, or insulin dependent, diabetic
C) someone suffering from high blood pressure
D) a competitive food eater

Question 69

How does having a BMI over 25 impact life expectancy?

A) It increases life span by 2-10 years.
B) It decreases life span by 1-2 years.
C) It decreases life span by 2-10 years.
D) It decreases life span by 10-15 years.

Question 70

Which of the following accounts for why children are more likely to be obese if their parents are obese?

A) Children learn to overindulge from their parents.
B) There are genetic risks for obesity.
C) Most of a child's dietary habits are influenced by their family members.
D) Diet is more similar within a family than it is outside of a family.

Question 71

By the year 2000, more than half of all calorie consumption in the United States was from ______.

A) proteins alone
B) fats alone
C) carbohydrates alone
D) carbohydrates and fats

Question 72

Which of the following is correlated with increased risk for obesity?

A) sleep deprivation
B) schizophrenia
C) autism
D) increased physical activity

Question 73

Amanda has a busy job in which she frequently must stay up late at night to complete work despite needing to be up early in the morning. How might her sleep habits be influencing her weight?

A) She will have lower ghrelin release, which will reduce her metabolism.
B) She will have higher leptin levels, which will increase her eating.
C) She will have lower leptin levels, which will increase her eating.
D) She will have higher CCK levels, which will increase her metabolism.

Question 74

What impact does the human adenovirus-36 appear to have on body weight?

A) It reduces body weight by reducing food intake.
B) It reduces body weight by increasing metabolism.
C) It increases body weight by increasing the amount of glucose that is stored in fat cells.
D) It increases body weight by reducing metabolism.

Question 75

What would happen to normal-weight mice if I colonized their guts with Firmicutes bacteria from obese mice?

A) The mice would gain weight despite a lack of increased eating.
B) The mice would overeat and then gain weight.
C) The mice would become sedentary and then gain weight.
D) The mice would lose weight despite a lack of decreased eating.

Question 76

Guts of obese children show ______.

A) more Bacteriodetes than Firmicutes
B) more Firmicutes than Bacteriodetes
C) equal numbers of Bacteriodetes and Firmicutes
D) more Firmicutes than any other bacteria, but only if the children are fed high-fat diets

Question 77

The obesity gene is located on chromosome ______.

A) 4
B) 6
C) 12
D) 18

Question 78

Using parabiotic mice to investigate genetic influences on obesity, it was found that ______.

A) if ob/ob mice were paired with normal mice, the ob/ob mice starved
B) if ob/ob mice were paired with normal mice, the normal mice starved
C) if db/db mice were paired with ob/ob mice, the ob/ob mice starved
D) if db/db mice were paired with normal mice, the db/db mice starved

Question 79

Which of the following is true of the genetic ob/ob mice?

A) They are not sensitive to the fat signal, but they do produce it.
B) They are sensitive to the fat signal, but they do not produce it.
C) They are sensitive to the fat signal, and they do produce it.
D) They are not sensitive to the fat signal, and they do not produce it.

Question 80

Fatu has a particular variant of the MC4R gene. How will this impact her body weight?

A) She will be at an increased risk for bulimia.
B) She will be at an increased risk for anorexia.
C) She will be at an increased risk for obesity and low metabolism.
D) She will be at an increased risk for obesity and overeating.