Deck 3: Federalism

Question 1

A system in which the national government dominates certain policy areas while regional governments dominate others is called a ______ government.

A) divided
B) federal
C) liberal
D) progressive
E) unitary

Answer 1

federal

Question 2

What makes American federalism especially intricate?

A) It has far more laws than most federal systems.
B) It governs a relatively small area.
C) It includes thousands of county, municipality, town, and district governments.
D) State constitutions often contradict the national Constitution.
E) It governs many loosely affiliated territories.

Answer 2

It includes thousands of county, municipality, town, and district governments.

Question 3

A government that consolidates most power in the national government is called

A) confederal.
B) federal.
C) liberal.
D) unitary.
E) republican.

Answer 3

unitary.

Question 4

The framers of the Constitution viewed the federal system as a safe middle ground between the extremes of a unitary system and a ________ system.

A) confederal
B) democratic
C) liberal
D) progressive
E) republican

Question 5

Which of the following is not generally considered an advantage of federalism?

A) A "double security" for the people's liberties
B) Competition between states
C) Increased opportunities for citizens to involve themselves in government
D) More and better deliberation
E) More overlap of state and federal laws

Question 6

_____ powers is the term for the seventeen express powers that Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution specifically grants to Congress.

A) Categorical
B) Enumerated
C) Implied
D) Reserved
E) Super

Question 7

Anti-Federalists believed that a republican government could only thrive in

A) industrial areas.
B) European nations.
C) New England.
D) small societies.
E) large societies.

Question 8

Which of the following is not a power of the federal government?

A) Coining money
B) Confirming federal judges
C) Declaring war
D) Imposing duties on state exports
E) Imposing taxes

Question 9

An example of a reserved power is

A) regulating property taxes.
B) entering into treaties.
C) declaring war.
D) coining money.
E) confirming federal judges.

Question 10

The Tenth Amendment states that powers not specifically delegated to the federal government are reserved to

A) judges.
B) law enforcement.
C) merchants.
D) property owners.
E) the states.

Question 11

The supremacy clause established that the

A) Supreme Court justices have the final authority over all actions of Congress and states.
B) Constitution, treaties, and federal laws are the supreme Law of the Land.
C) framers of the Constitution were superior to other men.
D) United States is a supreme nation.
E) people elected to office may claim rights superior to other citizens.

Question 12

The _______ clause empowers Congress to regulate trade with other nations as well as among the states.

A) commerce
B) full faith and credit
C) implied powers
D) necessary and proper
E) supremacy

Question 13

In which court case did Justice Marshall cite the commerce clause as granting the federal government jurisdiction over a variety of commercial activities?

A) Brown v. Board of Education
B) Gibbons v. Ogden
C) McCulloch v. Maryland
D) United States v. Lopez
E) Wickard v. Filburn

Question 14

What term is assigned to the idea that Congress can take actions that have a reasonable link to its enumerated powers?

A) Commerce clause
B) Implied powers
C) Necessary and proper
D) Nullification
E) Supremacy

Question 15

Which clause declares that states may not interfere with constitutional laws made by Congress?

A) Commerce clause
B) Full faith and credit clause
C) Implied powers clause
D) Necessary and proper clause
E) Supremacy clause

Question 16

What was the effect of many decisions of the Supreme Court under Chief Justice Marshall, including McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden?

A) The actual power of the federal government increased significantly.
B) The potential power of the federal government was broadened.
C) The power of the federal government was dramatically limited.
D) The power of the state governments was increased.
E) Municipalities were granted more powers and responsibilities.

Question 17

Dual federalism is

A) a form of government in which states are far more powerful than the central government.
B) an arrangement in which states focus on national security while the federal government attends to foreign policy.
C) an arrangement in which the federal government focuses on national security and foreign affairs, while states handle domestic policy.
D) the claim of South Carolina to have complete authority over its own relations with foreign nations.
E) the overlap of state and federal powers as outlined in the Constitution, and the ensuing difficulties of such government.

Question 18

_________ anonymously authored a resolution for Kentucky which declared that states had the right to declare federal acts unconstitutional, and therefore void.

A) Alexander Hamilton
B) Benjamin Franklin
C) James Madison
D) Thomas Jefferson
E) Thomas Paine

Question 19

What is nullification?

A) Ignoring a ruling of the Supreme Court
B) Secession from the Union
C) The decision of a state to reject the principles of the Constitution
D) The idea that each state can invalidate federal laws within its own boundaries or jurisdiction
E) The power to cancel out a debt

Question 20

In a conflict with South Carolina over tariff, President Jackson declared nullification to be

A) a basic tenet of federalism.
B) a vicious remnant of colonialism.
C) an implied right of every state.
D) necessary to the continued existence of the nation.
E) incompatible with the existence of the Union.

Question 21

What was the outcome of the 1832 conflict between Jackson and South Carolina?

A) It ended in victory for the federal government, but strengthened Southern resistance.
B) It ended in victory for South Carolina and a reduction in federal power.
C) It resulted in economic losses for Northern states.
D) South Carolina seceded from the Union.
E) Andrew Jackson was impeached and removed from office.

Question 22

What Congressional act did the Wisconsin Supreme Court rule unconstitutional in 1855?

A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Civil Rights Act
C) Fugitive Slave Act
D) Interstate Commerce Act
E) Morrill Act

Question 23

After seceding, Southern states adhered strongly to the

A) idea of state power.
B) power of the Confederate government in Richmond.
C) principles of Lincoln.
D) principles of the Constitution.
E) theory of federalism.

Question 24

The _______ marked the first time the federal government financially backed a program of social welfare.

A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Morrill Act
C) Fugitive Slave Act
D) Interstate Commerce Commission
E) Freedmen's Bureau

Question 25

What was the effect of the Civil War Amendments?

A) They reduced the influence of Southern states in all future Constitutional matters.
B) They limited states' power and laid a foundation for the growth of federal power.
C) They limited federal power and laid a foundation for the growth of state power.
D) They increased the president's power and limited the powers of Congress.
E) They limited the number of future states.

Question 26

With Southern seats vacant after secession, the Northern Republicans in Congress used the opportunity to

A) increase their salaries.
B) pass unconstitutional legislation.
C) reinforce states' rights.
D) strengthen the federal government.
E) weaken the central government.

Question 27

The abolition of slavery was achieved by the

A) Thirteenth Amendment.
B) Fifteenth Amendment.
C) First Amendment.
D) Gettysburg Address.
E) Civil Rights movement.

Question 28

The Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments limited

A) federal power.
B) immigration.
C) social welfare programs.
D) taxes.
E) the states' power.

Question 29

The Civil War marked a shift in American speech when referring to the United States, from the word "union" to the word

A) confederation.
B) federation.
C) nation.
D) regime.
E) government.

Question 30

Why did the delegates to the Constitutional Convention avoid using the word "nation" in the Constitution?

A) Southern states refused to ratify the Constitution if it referred to a nation.
B) "Nation" implies a unitary regime.
C) Anti-federalists threatened to assemble a new Constitutional Convention.
D) The Declaration expressly rejected this term.
E) Thomas Jefferson advised against it.

Question 31

Which of these was not an effect of the Civil War on federalism?

A) A shift toward a confederation
B) A strengthened federal government
C) Constitutional amendments limiting states' power
D) The emergence of a sense of national unity
E) The end of serious discussion of secession and nullification

Question 32

By banning alcohol, the Eighteenth Amendment marked the

A) first direct election of senators.
B) demise of states' rights.
C) beginning of a federal role in law enforcement.
D) advent of sovereign immunity.
E) end of women's suffrage.

Question 33

Which of the following programs of the 1930s came to be known as welfare?

A) Aid to families with dependent children
B) Industrial recovery
C) Medical care grants
D) Social security
E) Unemployment insurance

Question 34

Supreme Court decisions during the late 1930s and early 1940s tended to

A) eliminate social welfare programs.
B) expand upon the Tenth Amendment.
C) favor a return to confederalism.
D) increase the power of the federal government.
E) reaffirm states' rights.

Question 35

A ______ grant lays out strict rules for how to use federal funds designated for a particular program.

A) block
B) categorical
C) local
D) Pell
E) unitary

Question 36

A _____ grant is one in which the federal government gives only broad terms for how the states should spend the money.

A) block
B) categorical
C) local
D) Pell
E) unitary

Question 37

Opponents of categorical grants argued that such federal aid encouraged

A) local lawmakers to respond less to their constituents and more to Washington bureaucrats.
B) states to revive threats of nullification and secession.
C) people to have less concern for patriotism and self-sufficiency.
D) corporations to take advantage of loopholes in tax laws.
E) inflation during the war.

Question 38

What program was designed to redistribute federal tax money to states and localities with minimal red tape?

A) Block grants
B) Categorical grants
C) General revenue sharing
D) Mandates
E) The New Deal

Question 39

A(n) _________ is a federal requirement that state governments take certain actions.

A) act of unification
B) block grant
C) constituency
D) general revenue sharing
E) mandate

Question 40

Survey data and presidential election statistics indicate that since 1976, voting Americans have tended to favor

A) businessmen over career politicians.
B) federal government over state and local governments.
C) senatorial candidates over former governors.
D) state and local governments over the federal government.
E) unitary governments over federal governments

Question 41

A term that became common in the 1990s for the shift from federal power to state and local power is

A) devolution.
B) dual federalism.
C) home rule.
D) new federalism.
E) nullification.

Question 42

Congress retained federal power in the late 1990s despite campaign promises of devolution and passing the Unfunded Mandate Act of 1995 by

A) citing the implied powers of the Constitution.
B) passing preemption statutes.
C) calling for home rule.
D) repealing the Funded Mandate Act.
E) imposing general revenue sharing.

Question 43

A federal law that overrides state or local authority is called a(n)

A) equal opportunity statute.
B) devolution mandate.
C) unfunded mandate.
D) preemption statute.
E) federal regulation.

Question 44

When several states sued over the 2010 federal requirement to participate in a Medicaid expansion, their brief argued that the law was

A) a violation of equal opportunity employment regulations.
B) in conflict with interstate commerce.
C) biased toward high-income voters.
D) an act of devolution.
E) an act of coercion.

Question 45

The case Garcia v. San Antonio Metropolitan Transit Authority deals with

A) equal opportunity employment.
B) interstate commerce.
C) minimum wage laws.
D) transportation regulation.
E) workers' compensation.

Question 46

In which of the following examples did Congress pass legislation supporting states' rights?

A) Universal health care reform
B) Ending Aid to Families with Dependent Children
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) No Child Left Behind
E) Defense of Marriage Act

Question 47

United States v. Lopez and Printz v. United States both dealt with

A) firearms.
B) interstate commerce.
C) minimum wage.
D) slavery.
E) street gangs.

Question 48

In 2001, the Supreme Court struck down an order from the Attorney General that the Drug Enforcement Agency consider lethal injections in physician-assisted suicide to be a violation of the Controlled Substances Act. What was the court's argument?

A) Assisted suicide is a moral issue and therefore not under the jurisdiction of the court.
B) The Attorney General has no authority over the Drug Enforcement Agency.
C) The Controlled Substances Act refers only to illegal drugs.
D) Federalism restricts federal law from regulating the practice of medicine.
E) The people of Oregon had already voted in favor of assisted suicide.

Question 49

The Eleventh Amendment protects states from

A) lawsuits brought by a citizen of another state.
B) federal interference in medical matters.
C) judicial rulings that conflict with state law.
D) requirements to supply the federal government with revenues.
E) requirements to recognize judicial proceedings from other states.

Question 50

The _______ clause of Article IV requires each state to recognize other states' laws, records, and judicial proceedings.

A) commerce
B) full faith and credit
C) implied powers
D) necessary and proper
E) supremacy

Question 51

Why has there often been conflict between the state and federal governments regarding the National Guard?

A) States resent a prominent presence of federal forces.
B) National Guard forces are less restricted by federal law and can therefore be used against a state government more easily.
C) The National Guard has both state and federal roles, which sometimes results in an overlap of authority.
D) Other branches of the military are more closely monitored, causing tension with the National Guard.
E) There are too few laws governing the role of the National Guard.

Question 52

How do states and cities influence federal policy in contemporary politics?

A) State legislatures elect senators to Congress.
B) State legislatures pass preemption statutes.
C) States and cities bring cases to the attention of the Supreme Court.
D) States and cities control the salaries of representatives.
E) States and cities hire lobbyists.

Question 53

The history of which of the following cases illustrates the "double security" of federalism by which the states can take up issues when the federal government cannot or will not help?

A) Kelo v. City of New London
B) McCulloch v. Maryland
C) United States v. Lopez
D) United States v. Morrison
E) Wickard v. Filburn

Question 54

According to critics, what is the major harmful effect of state competition for businesses?

A) Failure to notice federal encroachments on states' rights
B) Inefficiency and redundancy
C) Money diverted from social welfare programs
D) Tension among states, resulting in a weaker national spirit
E) Too much chaos in the marketplace

Question 55

Which of the following is most likely to contribute to the fact that Americans tend to know more about their federal government than their local government?

A) Poor quality of the education system
B) Tendency of media networks to provide more coverage of federal proceedings
C) Laws passed by Congress requiring state meetings to be closed to the public
D) Corruption at the local level
E) Interference from the federal government

Question 56

Why do state term limits often hinder state independence from the federal government?

A) Term limits encourage lawmakers to take more federal money.
B) Too many people are elected without sufficient understanding of state laws.
C) New legislators are more susceptible to corruption.
D) Lawmakers have to leave office before they can gain the expertise needed for genuine deliberation and to protect state prerogatives.
E) The federal government can pressure inexperienced lawmakers more effectively.

Question 57

How do the theory and practice of American federalism illustrate Tocqueville's observation that "local institutions are to liberty what primary schools are to science?"

Question 58

How does the federal relationship between the national and state governments foster a more deliberative government?

Question 59

What are the features of federal, confederal, and unitary systems of government? What are the major advantages and disadvantages of each?

Question 60

How has the balance of federal and state power changed over time?

Question 61

What role did the Sixteenth Amendment play in increasing federal power over state policies?

Question 62

What may account for the apparent inconsistency of legislators who support federalism in principle but often advocate laws that counteract it? Give examples of legislation that have given rise to the question of states' rights versus federal authority.

Question 63

How does federalism provide "double security" for Americans' rights and interests? What are the potential dangers of this "double security"?

Question 64

According to advocates of federalism, why is it an especially effective system in larger countries?