Deck 36: Genital System

Question 1

The genital systems of males and females share which of the following defense mechanisms?

A) Mucous membrane
B) Intact skin
C) Normal flora
D) All of the above
E) A and B

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

The normal vaginal flora of a post-menopausal woman consists of primarily:

A) Lactobacillus spp.
B) gram-positive organisms.
C) gram-positive and gram-negative facultative organisms.
D) gram-positive and gram-negative facultative and anaerobic organisms.

Answer 2

gram-positive organisms.

Question 3

The organism that plays a key role in the maintenance of the normal vaginal flora of reproductive females is:

A) a member of the Enterobacteriaceae.
B) Gardnerella vaginalis.
C) yeast.
D) Lactobacillus spp.

Answer 3

Lactobacillus spp.

Question 4

The presence of blisters on the genitals is consistent with infection due to

A) HSV-1.
B) HSV-2.
C) HPV.
D) either a or b.

Question 5

The presence of anaerobes should be considered potential pathogens in all of the following specimens/body sites except

A) intrauterine device.
B) pelvic abscess.
C) endocervical.
D) endometrium.

Question 6

Painful ulcers of the genital system occur typically with

A) chancroid.
B) syphilis.
C) granuloma inguinale.
D) lymphogranuloma venereum.

Question 7

Co-infection of the genital tract often occurs with

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Trichomonas vaginalis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis and Trichomonas vaginalis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Trichomonas vaginalis and herpes simplex virus.

Question 8

The causative agent of granuloma inguinale is best demonstrated by

A) darkfield exam of the lesion.
B) culture.
C) Giemsa stain of the lesion.
D) serology.

Question 9

Culture is an option for detection of each of the following organisms except

A) Haemophilus ducreyi.
B) human papilloma virus.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis.
D) herpes simplex virus.

Question 10

Which of the following scenarios is not acceptable for a request for culture for recovery of Listeria monocytogenes?

A) Amniotic fluid from a 31 year old female, at 19 weeks gestation, presenting with fever.
B) Placenta culture from a 29 year old female who delivered a stillborn male at 20 weeks gestation.
C) Vaginal culture from a 33 year old female, at 30 weeks gestation, complaining of flu-like symptoms.
D) vaginal swab from a 27 year old, non-pregnant female.

Question 11

Given a request for a culture for isolation of Haemophilus ducreyi, what is the ideal medium for its isolation?

A) Chocolate agar
B) Chocolate agar with 3 mcg/mLvancomycin
C) Thayer-Martin agar
D) JEMBEC

Question 12

A gray-white colony demonstrating subtle hemolysis is isolated from a placenta culture. You will

A) perform a Gram stain.
B) perform a catalase test.
C) a and b.
D) perform serotyping for group B Streptococcus.

Question 13

A gray, alpha-hemolytic colony isolated from the vaginal tract of a 27-year-old female should be

A) considered normal vaginal flora.
B) Gram stained.
C) screened with catalase and ESC/PYR.
D) both b and c.

Question 14

The presence of a white, beta-hemolytic, catalase- and coagulase-positive, gram-positive coccus from the vaginal canal of a 37-year-old menstruating female can be significant if

A) the organism is a toxin producer.
B) it is also novobiocin resistant.
C) it is methicillin susceptible.
D) it is not significant in this situation.

Question 15

A physician submits a vaginal swab from a 4-year-old female who has been physically abused. The physician requests a culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and chlamydia trachomatis. After 48 hours, a gray colony is observed on the ThayerMartin agar. Further testing provides the following results:

Oxidase: purple Lactose: red
Glucose: yellow Sucrose: red
Maltose: red

This organism should be

A) reported as Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) subbed to a nutrient agar at 35°C and chocolate agar at 25°C.
C) identified using a second methodology.
D) tested for beta-lactamase production.

Question 16

A 17-year-old female presents with burning on urination. The physician sends the laboratory a voided urine sample and swab of the urethra of this patient. The urine and swab are plated and a direct Gram stain of the urethral swab is performed. The image provided demonstrates the results of the direct Gram stain of the urethra.
Source: CDC and Joe Miller
This Gram stain considered diagnostic for ___________.

A) a urinary tract infection and the urine culture is not needed.
B) trichomoniasis and neither the urine nor urethral culture is needed.
C) gonorrhea and the urethral culture is not needed.
D) unable to diagnose from the Gram stain.

Question 17

A 28-year-old female has delivered a 5 pound male at 32 weeks gestation. A culture of the placenta demonstrates a beta-hemolytic gray-white colony that is catalase negative. This organism will also be

A) CAMP positive.
B) motile at room temperature.
C) esculin hydrolysis positive.
D) sodium hippurate hydrolysis negative.

Question 18

Which of the following genital organisms is not considered a national level reportable genital pathogen on isolation or detection?

A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Candida albicans
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Hepatitis A

Question 19

The Gram stain of a vaginal discharge is reviewed for the presence of bacterial vaginosis. The microbiologist assigns a score of 2 to the slide. This means there is/are

A) a predominance of gram-negative rods and a limited number of gram-positive rods.
B) a predominance of gram-positive rods and a limited number of gram-negative rods.
C) gram-negative rods and gram-positive rods are present in equal amounts.
D) no organisms present.

Question 20

When cultured as a significant isolate from a genital culture, which of the following organisms does not routinely require susceptibility testing?

A) Candida albicans
B) Anaerobic gram-negative rods
C) Enterobacteriaceae
D) Staphylococcus aureus