Deck 10: Crafting the Brand Position

Question 1

A good illustration of the value position for Butterball (turkey) is

A) turkey any way you like it.
B) bringing turkey to the world.
C) one price beats all.
D) risk- and hassle-free cooking.
E) ethical values and quality turkey.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

All marketing strategy is built on STP segmentation, targeting, and

A) product.
B) positioning.
C) performance.
D) promotion.
E) planning.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

________ is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the mind of the target market.

A) Preproduct launching
B) Product conceptualization
C) Positioning
D) Promotion presentation
E) Performance imaging

Answer 3

C

Question 4

As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best purpose for your organization's competitive points-of-parity?

A) to rationalize competitive points-of-difference
B) to negate competitive points-of-difference
C) to emphasize competitive points-of-difference
D) to globalize competitive points-of-difference
E) to point out competitive points-of-difference

Question 5

________ are associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands.

A) Brand cells
B) Points-of-competitive field
C) Points-of-difference
D) Brand positions
E) Points-of-parity

Question 6

When BMW first made a strong competitive push into the U.S. market in the early 1980s, it positioned the brand as being the only automobile that offered

A) value for the dollar spent.
B) ego enhancement.
C) both luxury and performance.
D) a sexy status symbol.
E) a reputation in addition to outstanding performance.

Question 7

The typical approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand's membership before stating its

A) point-of-conflict.
B) point-of-parity.
C) point-of-difference.
D) point-of-reference.
E) point-of-weakness.

Question 8

A starting point in defining a competitive frame of reference for a brand positioning is to determine ________the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes.

A) category membership
B) value membership
C) functional membership
D) demand field
E) competitive field

Question 9

As part of the strategic brand management process, each company and offering must represent the ________ in the mind of the target market.

A) ad
B) cell
C) promotion
D) organizational concept
E) right kinds of things

Question 10

________ may be based on virtually any type of attribute or benefit. For example, FedEx uses "guaranteed overnight delivery" and Nike uses "performance."

A) Points-of-defensibility
B) Points-of-parity
C) Points-of-conflict
D) Points-of-difference
E) Points-of-service

Question 11

Which of the following statements would most closely match to Volvo's value proposition for its station wagon line?

A) Old-world styling for a new-world car.
B) The whole family will fit in comfort.
C) The safest, most durable wagon in which your family can ride.
D) Styling from the twenty-first century and beyond.
E) Diversity of uses, diversity of users.

Question 12

There are three main ways to convey a brand's category membership: announcing category benefits, ________, and relying on the product descriptor.

A) overt publicity
B) industry trade press
C) buzz marketing
D) comparing to exemplars
E) preference positions

Question 13

To achieve a point-of-parity (POP) on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is "________" on that dimension.

A) service-based
B) marginal
C) most excellent
D) good enough
E) neutral

Question 14

Cascades's consumer paper products has a unique point of difference it can shout out to its current and prospective customers. The difference is that its products are

A) truly good for the environment.
B) produced in Canada.
C) the most absorbent on the market.
D) available in an array of colours.
E) better value than competitors'.

Question 15

The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________, a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product.

A) strategic window of opportunity
B) everyday low-pricing
C) an award winning promotional campaign
D) a customer-focused value proposition
E) a demand channel

Question 16

Assume that you are in a position to develop your organization's points-of-difference for an upcoming promotional campaign. Which of the following sets of consumer desirability criteria would best fit your promotional task?

A) reliability and dependability
B) promotional protection and believability
C) customization and status
D) relevance and believability
E) value and service

Question 17

There are three main ways that a brand's category membership can be conveyed. Which of those ways is applicable in the following situation: Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing components of any antacid?

A) announcing category benefits
B) comparing to exemplars
C) focusing on reliability
D) relying on the product descriptor
E) persuasion based on believability

Question 18

Deciding to target a certain type of consumer can define the nature of ________ because certain firms have targeted that segment in the past.

A) positioning
B) competition
C) category membership
D) value proposition
E) brand essence

Question 19

To avoid confusing brand loyal customers, Ford presented the X-trainer as a "sport wagon." With respect to ways of conveying a brand's category membership, which of the following did Ford use with its new product?

A) comparing to exemplars
B) announcing category benefits
C) relying on the product descriptor
D) using brand perception to increase profits
E) using public relations to secure brand position

Question 20

Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the following statement: "attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand"?

A) points-of-value
B) brand concept
C) points-of-parity
D) points-of-difference
E) brand image

Question 21

A marketing manager asks a subordinate "Can the favourability of the new brand association we just created in our recent ad campaign be reinforced and strengthened over time?" Which of the following delivery criteria used for choosing points-of-difference would be most appropriate to the question asked?

A) communicability
B) sustainability
C) relevance
D) comparisons
E) feasibility

Question 22

Which of the following would be the best example of negatively correlated attributes or benefits?

A) image versus sales
B) low quality versus high quality
C) supply versus demand
D) powerful versus safe
E) nutritious versus unhealthy

Question 23

Capital City Savings and Credit Union in Edmonton offers its members the opportunity to seek advice from its auto specialist before shopping for a new or used car. This credit union is positioning their brand through which type of differentiation?

A) expert
B) image
C) employee
D) product
E) channel

Question 24

An advantage that a company can use to lever itself to new advantages is called a

A) leverageable advantage.
B) competitive advantage.
C) customer advantage.
D) sustainable advantage.
E) channel advantage.

Question 25

There are at least two key consumer desirability criteria for PODs (points-of-difference): relevance, and

A) non-technological.
B) presentation style.
C) believability.
D) information content.
E) economy.

Question 26

From the outset, the founders of Moores Clothing for Men made the commitment to offer the largest selection of quality menswear at the lowest possible prices with devotion to customer satisfaction and service. Which of these commitments represents Moores's point-of-parity?

A) largest selection of quality menswear
B) customer satisfaction
C) lowest possible prices
D) service
E) satisfied employees

Question 27

The obvious means of differentiation, and often most compelling ones to consumers, relate to aspects of the

A) product and service.
B) sales team responsible for the product or service.
C) promotions.
D) price.
E) distribution process.

Question 28

In order to derive a fresh approach to gaining consumer insights to differentiating products and services, a list of questions that help to identify new, customer-based points of differentiation. By examining customers' entire experience with a product or service the ________ they can uncover positioning opportunities.

A) consumption chain
B) brand attributes
C) personnel differentiation
D) negative correlations
E) channel differentiation

Question 29

Companies can achieve competitive advantage through the way they design their distribution channels' coverage, ________, and performance.

A) expertise
B) image
C) identity
D) prestige
E) responsiveness

Question 30

Marketers must decide at which level to anchor the brand's points-of-differences. At the lowest level are ________. For example, Dove soap can talk about the fact that it is one-quarter cleansing cream.

A) brand partitions
B) brand attributes
C) brand benefits
D) brand specifications
E) brand values

Question 31

One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are

A) neither positive nor negatively correlated.
B) inversely correlated.
C) unable to be correlated.
D) positive correlated.
E) negatively correlated.

Question 32

Porter Airlines has billed itself as the airline that "does it right", and they have been living up to their promise to "change the way people fly". This is an example of a successful

A) negatively correlated attribute.
B) category membership.
C) differentiation strategy.
D) point-of-parity.
E) product launch.

Question 33

Points-of-parity are driven by the needs of category membership and

A) large margins.
B) loyalty.
C) the necessity of negating competitors' PODs (points-of-difference).
D) the creation of PODs (points-of-difference).
E) guaranteed profits.

Question 34

Which of the following deliverability criteria asks a question such as "Is the positioning preemptive, defensible, and difficult to attack?" when determining a POD (point-of-difference)?

A) communicability
B) feasibility
C) sustainability
D) value orientation
E) knowledgeable

Question 35

When BMW created a straddle position with its "luxury and performance" approach, it was able to maximize

A) attributes.
B) competitive parity.
C) benefits.
D) its core identity.
E) both attributes and benefits.

Question 36

________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes.

A) Category membership
B) Target audience
C) Competitive frame of reference
D) Demand field
E) Consumer profitability analysis

Question 37

Hyatt Regency used the design of its atrium hotel lobbies to differentiate using which of the following dimensions?

A) channel differentiation
B) image differentiation
C) service differentiation
D) packaging differentiation
E) personnel differentiation

Question 38

The sales forces of companies such as GE, Cisco, and Pfizer enjoy an excellent reputation. This is an example of

A) employee differentiation.
B) service differentiation.
C) channel differentiation.
D) image differentiation.
E) product differentiation.

Question 39

A(n) ________ is a group of firms offering a product or class of products that are close substitutes for one another.

A) industry
B) community
C) task force
D) product category
E) market segment

Question 40

________ are defined as companies that satisfy the same customer need.

A) Market segment
B) Mass market
C) Industries
D) Communities
E) Competitors

Question 41

According to the illustrations describing the product life cycle, during which stage of the cycle is there a strong likelihood that negative profits will be the norm?

A) decline
B) growth
C) introduction
D) death
E) maturity

Question 42

You are somewhat shocked to learn that your product's profit curve is in the negative. Which of the following stages of the product life cycle is your product most likely in given its position on its profit curve?

A) introduction
B) saturation
C) growth
D) maturity
E) decline

Question 43

The Trivial Pursuit board game debuted at the International Toy Fair in 1982 and quickly caught on as a fad. How has Parker Brothers managed to extend this fad's life span?

A) by seeking new target audiences
B) by creating constant product updates and offshoots
C) by retiring the original game format
D) by discontinuing the multiple choice format
E) by inventing new categories

Question 44

Which of the following product life-cycle stages would be appropriately described as being one where firms focus mainly on buyers from higher-income groups and prices tend to be high because costs are high?

A) decline stage
B) maturity stage
C) saturation stage
D) introduction stage
E) growth stage

Question 45

To say that a product has a life cycle is to assert four things. Which of the following assertions impacts marketing, financial, manufacturing, purchasing, and human resource responsibilities in a company?

A) Products require different strategies in each life-cycle stage.
B) Products have a limited life.
C) Product sales pass through distinct stages, each posing different challenges, opportunities, and problems to the seller.
D) Profits rise and fall at different stages of the product life cycle.
E) All products have a life-cycle.

Question 46

________ do not survive (as a special category product life cycle) because they do not normally satisfy a strong need.

A) Fads
B) Fashions
C) Styles
D) Intra-brands
E) Trends

Question 47

The PLC concept can be used to analyze a product category, a product, a brand, or a

A) product fashion.
B) product name.
C) product plan.
D) product market.
E) product form.

Question 48

While looking at a series of special-case product life cycles, you observe that one of the life cycles has had a rapid growth in sales resulting in a severe peak of the sales curve followed by a rapid decline. Which of the following product life-cycle curves is most likely represented by the above illustration?

A) style life cycle
B) niche life cycle
C) fad life cycle
D) techno life cycle
E) fashion life cycle

Question 49

A product such as nylon (e.g., numerous uses parachutes, hosiery, shirts, carpeting, et cetera) has been characterized as having a ________ pattern to its product lifecycle.

A) fad
B) growth-slump-maturity
C) scalloped
D) triangular
E) cycle-recycle

Question 50

Golder and Tellis distinguish between three types of new product pioneers. Which type is the first to develop patents in a new-product category?

A) nonsurviving pioneer
B) inventor
C) product pioneer
D) market pioneer
E) innovator

Question 51

Most studies indicate, with respect to the product lifecycle in its introductory stage, that the ________ gains the most advantage.

A) market nicher
B) market challenger
C) market pioneer
D) market reverser
E) market follower

Question 52

The maturity stage of the product life cycle is characterized by

A) substantial profit improvement.
B) a slowdown in sales growth.
C) a downward drift and eroding profits.
D) a period of slow sales growth.
E) rapid market acceptance.

Question 53

Today, most products are in the ________ of the life cycle, and most marketing managers must cope with the problems and challenges of this stage.

A) introduction stage
B) growth stage
C) maturity stage
D) pre-pioneering stage
E) decline stage

Question 54

Which of the following product lifecycle stages is characterized as being one where a rapid climb in sales occurs, new product features are introduced by new competitors, and distribution is expanded?

A) growth
B) maturity
C) pre-pioneering
D) introduction
E) saturation

Question 55

According to the general bell-shaped curve used to illustrate the product life cycle, which of the following stages is generally seen when the sales curve is at its peak?

A) maturity
B) growth
C) abandonment
D) decline
E) introduction

Question 56

The ________ stage of the product is characterized as being one where there is period of rapid market acceptance and substantial profit improvement.

A) decline
B) introduction
C) maturity
D) saturation
E) growth

Question 57

When Mel chose his new home, he picked a Cape Cod design. Which of the following special categories of product life cycles would be most associated with the description of Mel's home?

A) fad
B) ideation
C) technological
D) fashion
E) style

Question 58

All of the following strategies have been suggested as proper for sustaining rapid market growth during the growth stage of the product life cycle. Which of these strategies can also involve improved product styling?

A) increases its distribution coverage
B) improves product quality and adds new product features
C) shifts from product-awareness advertising to product-preference advertising
D) enters into new market segments
E) lowers prices to attract the next layer of price-sensitive buyers

Question 59

The pioneer advantage does not always ensure success in the marketplace. Which of the following is a reason for a market pioneer to be overtaken by later entrants?

A) technological leadership
B) improperly positioned
C) aimed at the middle of the market
D) higher rates of repeat purchase
E) established the attributes the product class should possess

Question 60

Which of the following common product life-cycle patterns would be characterized as being one where sales grow rapidly when the product is first introduced and then fall to a "petrified" level that is sustained by late adopters buying the product for the first time and early adopters replacing the product?

A) scalloped pattern
B) cycle-recycle pattern
C) reverse-cycle pattern
D) inverse-cycle pattern
E) growth-slump-maturity pattern

Question 61

The maturity stage of the product life cycle can be divided into three distinct phases. If the absolute level of sales starts to decline and customers begin switching to other products, the marketing manager will most likely find that the product is in the ________ phase of the maturity stage.

A) stable
B) growth
C) decaying maturity
D) competitive vulnerability
E) abandonment

Question 62

During which of the following stages of the product life cycle (PLC) would we expect a marketing manager to pursue a marketing objective of maximizing market share?

A) maturity
B) introduction
C) growth
D) pre-pioneering
E) decline

Question 63

The three key criteria that determine whether a brand association can truly function as a point-of-difference are ________.

A) desirability, peculiarity, deliverability
B) deviance, peculiarity, deformity
C) differentiability, authenticity, desirability
D) comparability, authenticity, deliverability
E) desirability, deliverability, differentiability

Question 64

The goal of positioning is ________.

A) to target those customers marketers can satisfy in a superior way
B) to discover the different needs and groups existing in the marketplace
C) to locate the brand in the minds of consumers to maximize the potential benefit to the firm
D) to collect information about competitors that will directly influence the firms' strategy
E) to help the firm anticipate what the actions of its competitors will be

Question 65

In the decline phase of the product life cycle, if a firm "milks" the firm's investment to recover cash quickly, it is using a strategy called

A) psychological divestment.
B) reverse engineering.
C) abandonment.
D) harvesting.
E) positioning.

Question 66

Which of the following stages of the product life cycle (PLC) is characterized as being one where there are low sales, high cost per customer, negative profits, and few competitors?

A) introduction
B) maturity
C) growth
D) abandonment
E) decline

Question 67

________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the brand represents.

A) Brand symbols
B) Brand logos
C) Brand alliances
D) Brand extensions
E) Brand mantras

Question 68

________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.

A) Brand positioning
B) Competitive advantage
C) Market research
D) Competitor analysis
E) Competitive intelligence

Question 69

When sales peak, there is a low cost per customer, profits are high, and the marketing manager attempts to maximize profit while defending market share, the product is most likely in the ________ stage of the product life cycle (PLC).

A) maturity
B) introduction
C) growth
D) pre-pioneering
E) decline

Question 70

Markets are similar to products with respect to life-cycle concepts. Which of the following stages in a market's life cycle is most similar to the product life cycle's introduction stage?

A) growth
B) decline
C) saturation
D) emergence
E) maturity

Question 71

Which of the following is a popular criticism of product life-cycle theory?

A) It has few actual examples that can be benchmarked.
B) It is too costly to implement.
C) Stages often follow fad trends.
D) Life-cycle patterns are too variable in shape and duration.
E) It only works in the North American market.

Question 72

Managers try to stimulate sales by modifying the product's characteristics. Which of these modifications has as its aim to increase the product's functional performance?

A) style improvement
B) packaging improvement
C) quality improvement
D) feature improvement
E) fashion improvement

Question 73

A company might try to expand the market for its mature brand by working with the two factors that make up sales volume. Volume equals (=)

A) number of brand users times (×) usage rate per user.
B) price level of the product times (×) the number of items purchased.
C) number of brand users times (×) amount of money spent on each purchase.
D) price level of the product times (×) the number in the market segment selected for targeting.
E) supply times (×) demand.

Question 74

Which of the following statements about brand mantras is true?

A) They guide only major decisions, they have no influence on mundane decisions.
B) Their influence does not extend beyond tactical concerns.
C) They must economically communicate what the brand is and avoid communicating what it is not.
D) They leverage the values of the brand to take the brand into new markets/sectors.
E) They can provide guidance about what ad campaigns to run and where and how to sell the brand.

Question 75

When Folger's created its AromaSeal canisters to keep ground beans fresher, it used ________ as a means of modifying its product so additional customers might be attracted to the brand.

A) feature improvement
B) packaging improvement
C) idea improvement
D) quality improvement
E) style improvement

Question 76

Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as personally relevant to them?

A) deliverability
B) authenticity
C) desirability
D) differentiability
E) feasibility

Question 77

Which of the following criteria relates to companies must have the resources and commitment to feasibly and profitably create and maintain the brand association in the minds of consumers?

A) competitivity
B) feasibility
C) differentiability
D) desirability
E) deliverability

Question 78

Brand mantras typically are designed to capture the brand's ________, that is, what is unique about the brand.

A) points-of-conflict
B) points-of-parity
C) points-of-inflection
D) points-of-presence
E) points-of-difference

Question 79

If an organization chooses "harvesting" as a decline stage PLC strategy, the first step in using such a strategy would likely be to

A) rejuvenate the brand or product.
B) require that all distributors reduce inventory of older product models.
C) cut R&D costs and plant and equipment investment.
D) cut all promotional expenses.
E) cancel distribution contracts.

Question 80

A person's emotional response to a brand and its marketing will depend on many factors. One increasingly important factor is a brand's __________.

A) knowledge
B) equity
C) image
D) mantra
E) authenticity