Deck 3: ICD-Specific Guidelines

Question 1

A coder reviews a patient's medical chart and reads a laboratory report of blood work ordered by the physician after the patient's last visit. The patient presented with a chief complaint of general weakness and persistent cough as documented in the medical record and no further definitive diagnosis is documented. The coder sees that presence of HIV is confirmed in the laboratory report. The coder should:

A) Code HIV, general weakness, and persistent cough
B) Code general weakness and persistent cough
C) Code HIV only
D) Code general weakness only

Answer 1

Code general weakness and persistent cough

Question 2

Which ICD-10-CM code describes "Inconclusive laboratory evidence of human immunodeficiency virus?"

A) Z72.89
B) Z11.59
C) Z21
D) R75

Answer 2

R75

Question 3

A form of organ failure of the vascular system is:

A) septic shock
B) severe sepsis
C) systemic inflammatory response syndrome
D) sepsis

Answer 3

septic shock

Question 4

Categories E08 through E13 are subdivided first by the type or cause of diabetes, then by:

A) the insulin dependence of the patient
B) the status of control and the type of diabetes
C) duration of the diabetes
D) affected body system or manifestation of diabetes

Question 5

Section, Subsection I, C, 2, i provides correct coding guidelines for:

A) Primary malignancy previously excised
B) Malignancy in two or more contiguous sites
C) Coding and sequencing of complications
D) Admission/encounter for pain management

Question 6

Guidelines regarding correct Coding and sequencing of complications associated with malignancies or with therapy are found in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, d
B) I, C, 2, i
C) I, C, 2, h
D) I, C, 2, c

Question 7

Only if the condition is ____________ can a coder select a code from category B20, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease.

A) confirmed by test results as stated in a laboratory report
B) probable
C) suspected
D) confirmed by a statement by the provider in the documentation

Question 8

Guidelines for correct coding of Admission/encounter for therapy of neoplasms are found in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, h
B) I, C, 2, d
C) I, C, 2, e
D) I, C, 2, i

Question 9

All of the following are HIV-related opportunistic infections except:

A) Cryptosporidiosis
B) Isosporiasis
C) Psoriasis
D) Cytomegalovirus

Question 10

Septicemia is:

A) a form of organ failure of the vascular system
B) the presence of toxins or disease in the blood
C) sepsis with organ failure
D) a response specifically to an infection

Question 11

Patient presents with postpancreatectomy diabetes mellitus following partial removal of the pancreas. Select the appropriate code(s).

A) E89.1, E13.-, Z90.411
B) Z90.411
C) Z90.410
D) E89.1

Question 12

An invasive tumor that spreads beyond the tumor site is said to be:

A) malignant
B) secondary neoplasm
C) benign
D) primary neoplasm

Question 13

The site of origin of the malignancy is referred to as:

A) primary neoplasm
B) secondary neoplasm
C) benign
D) malignant

Question 14

A patient presents with a primary neoplasm of the left femur (C40.22) and is admitted for chemotherapy treatment (Z51.11). During the course of treatment, the patient experiences severe nausea and is treated for the nausea in this encounter (R11.0). Select the appropriate code assignment and sequence for this scenario:

A) Z51.11,C40.22, R11.0
B) R11.0, Z51.11
C) C40.22, Z51.11, R11.0
D) R11.0, Z51.11, C40.22

Question 15

All of the following are HIV-related opportunistic infections except:

A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Microsporidiosis
D) Rickettsioses

Question 16

Regarding SIRS, hypothermia is defined as:

A) Body temperature less than 97.8 degrees Fahrenheit
B) Body temperature less than 97.6 degrees Fahrenheit
C) Body temperature less than 98.0 degrees Fahrenheit
D) Body temperature less than 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 17

When an insulin pump malfunctions leading to overdosing, select the appropriate reporting and sequencing of resulting conditions:

A) code first the appropriate diabetes code, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then poisoning by insulin, then the reason for the pump's presence, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing
B) code first the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then poisoning by insulin, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing
C) code first the reason for the pump's presence, then poisoning by insulin, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing
D) code first conditions resulting from the overdosing, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then the reason for the pump's presence, then poisoning by insulin, followed by the appropriate diabetes code

Question 18

The spread or metastases of a malignancy is the:

A) benign
B) malignant
C) secondary neoplasm
D) primary neoplasm

Question 19

Diabetes due to an underlying condition or cause is referred to as:

A) insulin-dependent diabetes
B) autonomous diabetes
C) severe diabetes
D) secondary diabetes

Question 20

Not all chapters have guidelines for coding conditions within the chapters because:

A) guidelines have been developed but are not yet published
B) guidelines for some of the chapters have not yet been developed
C) some guidelines conflict with those provided in the general guidelines and are not published to reduce confusion
D) guidelines are not necessary for some chapters

Question 21

All of the following are HIV-related opportunistic infections except:

A) Lymphomas
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Herpes simplex or zoster virus
D) Leukemia

Question 22

A response specifically to an infection is:

A) septicemia
B) systemic inflammatory response syndrome
C) sepsis
D) severe sepsis

Question 23

ICD guidelines state that if the type of diabetes is not documented:

A) type II diabetes is coded
B) the coder may not assign a code for diabetes
C) the coder may not assign a code until the physician is queried
D) type I diabetes is coded

Question 24

Select the best answer for the following: The guidelines at the ___________ level(s) supersede the chapter-specific guidelines.

A) chapter, section, and code
B) section
C) code and section
D) chapter

Question 25

Chapter 2, Neoplasms, contains most, but not all, codes for benign and malignant neoplasms. Some neoplasm codes are located in:

A) Signs, Symptoms, and Ill-Defined Conditions
B) the chapters specific to the neoplasms' anatomical sites
C) the Neoplasm table only
D) Injury and Poisoning

Question 26

A progressive condition that may or may not begin with an infectious process but may result in organ failure and loss of life is:

A) septicemia
B) systemic inflammatory response syndrome
C) severe sepsis
D) sepsis

Question 27

The presence of ______ signifies a progression of HIV disease from asymptomatic to symptomatic and shifts a patient's diagnosis from HIV to AIDS.

A) opportunistic infections
B) viral infections
C) bacterial infections
D) generalized weakness

Question 28

Select the false statement regarding use of code Z79.4:

A) it is appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type II diabetes when applicable
B) it is appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type I diabetes when applicable
C) it is not appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type I diabetes
D) it is possible that this code will not be used with a code for type II diabetes

Question 29

Select the correct sequencing of codes when the reason for a patient's encounter is treatment of a condition resulting from diabetes when the diabetic condition is due to malnutrition:

A) code the diabetes first, followed by the reason for the encounter (underlying condition)
B) code underlying cause of the diabetes, then the diabetes, followed by the diabetic manifestation
C) code the diabetes only
D) code the reason for the encounter (underlying condition) only

Question 30

Diagnosis code Z11.4 represents:

A) Encounter for screening for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B) Inconclusive serologic test for human immunodeficiency virus
C) High-risk lifestyle
D) Screening for other specified viral disease

Question 31

A 35-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency Room with a chief complaint of severe pain in the right hand after sustaining a fall down a flight of concrete steps at his apartment complex. Upon examination, the patient sustained multiple closed fractures to the hand. The patient is also HIV positive and suffers from peripheral neuropathy. Select the appropriate code selection and sequence to report for this patient:

A) S62.91XA, B20, G99.0
B) Z21, G99.0, S62.91XA
C) B20, S62.91XA, G99.0
D) S62.91XA, Z21, G99.0

Question 32

Patient is being seen to determine their HIV status and they suspect they have been exposed to the HIV virus, select the appropriate code(s)._2021_QC_CS-252524

A) Z72.9
B) Z11.4
C) Z21
D) Z11.4, Z20.6

Question 33

When an opportunistic infection, such as Kaposi's sarcoma of the lung, is documented in an HIV-positive patient's record, how may the coder report this diagnosis?

A) C46.50
B) B20
C) Z21
D) B20, C46.50

Question 34

If a primary site, due to excision or therapy, no longer exists and the patient is receiving treatment for a secondary site, the primary site is coded with:

A) personal history Z code
B) no code is assigned
C) Signs, Symptoms, and Ill-Defined Conditions code
D) family history Z code

Question 35

Correct coding guidelines regarding Treatment of secondary neoplasm site are outlined in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, a
B) I, C, 2, b
C) I, C, 2, e
D) I, C, 2, g

Question 36

Select the true statement regarding ICD-10-CM guidelines for the Neoplasms chapter:

A) For advanced metastatic disease, coders are directed to select a "Disseminated malignant neoplasm, unspecified" from the Signs, Symptoms, and Ill-Defined Conditions chapter
B) sequencing of anemia and neoplasms is dependent on the type of malignancy of the neoplasm
C) admissions for chemotherapy are no longer described by one ICD-10-CM code
D) If anemia is due to neoplasm, sequence the code for the neoplasm before the appropriate code for the type of anemia

Question 37

A 27-year-old pregnant female in her second trimester presents with MSSA. Select the appropriate code selection and sequence:
· A41.01 Sepsis due to Methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus
· B95.61 Methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere
· O98.812 Other maternal infectious and parasitic diseases complicating pregnancy, second trimester

A) O98.819, A41.01
B) A41.01, B95.61, O98.812
C) O98.812, A41.01
D) O98.812, A41.01, B95.61

Question 38

When a diabetes-related complication is associated with an organ system, how many codes are typically needed to completely describe the diagnostic statement?

A) two
B) four
C) one
D) three

Question 39

Which of the following is not required to select an HIV code?

A) confirmed diagnosis in the documentation
B) provider's documentation of an HIV diagnosis
C) a positive test result confirming an HIV diagnosis
D) a provider's statement regarding HIV diagnosis

Question 40

Most of the codes listed in Categories E08 through E13 are:

A) stand-alone
B) combination
C) secondary
D) sequenced

Question 41

When an insulin pump malfunctions leading to underdosing, select the appropriate reporting and sequencing of resulting conditions:

A) code first conditions resulting from the underdosing, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then the reason for the pump's presence, followed by the appropriate diabetes code
B) code first the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then the underdosing of insulin, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the underdosing
C) code first the reason for the pump's presence, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the underdosing
D) code first the appropriate diabetes code, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then the reason for the pump's presence, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the underdosing

Question 42

Guidelines for Chapter 1, Infectious and Parasitic Diseases, include correct coding guidelines for:

A) HIV, SIRS, and cellulitis
B) HIV, sepsis, and severe sepsis only
C) HIV, septicemia, and SIRS only
D) HIV, sepsis, severe sepsis, septic shock, MRSA and ZIKA virus

Question 43

Documentation of all of the following could result in a diagnosis of SIRS except:

A) Body Temperature
B) Tachypnea
C) Brachycardia
D) White Blood Count

Question 44

Aside from infection, under what circumstance can the body develop SIRS?

A) mutation
B) age
C) trauma
D) contagion

Question 45

The Chapter Specific Coding Guidelines are found in:

A) Section I, A
B) Section I, B
C) Section I, D
D) Section I, C

Question 46

When coding for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and HIV-related conditions, the coder must understand the current state of the ___________ in relation to the condition of HIV.

A) patient
B) physician
C) treatment
D) medication

Question 47

When an opportunistic infection is present, which of the following is true regarding code selection?

A) An HIV code and a code identifying the opportunistic infection are required; the HIV code is always sequenced first
B) An AIDS code only is required
C) An HIV code only is required
D) An AIDS code and a code identifying the opportunistic infection are required; the sequencing is dependent upon the reason for the visit and if other conditions are present

Question 48

Severe sepsis is:

A) the presence of toxins or disease in the blood
B) a form of organ failure of the vascular system
C) sepsis with organ failure
D) a response specifically to an infection

Question 49

All of the following are HIV-related opportunistic infections except:

A) Gonorrhea
B) Tuberculosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Syphilis

Question 50

Section, Subsection I, C, 2, d provides correct coding guidelines for:

A) Symptoms, signs, and ill-defined conditions associated with neoplasms
B) Admission/encounter for therapy
C) Primary malignancy previously excised
D) Coding and sequencing of complications

Question 51

Which of the following is an antibiotic resistant staph infection?

A) MSA
B) MSSA
C) MRA
D) MRSA

Question 52

Coding of sepsis requires a minimum of _____ code(s).

A) four
B) three
C) two
D) one

Question 53

Section, Subsection I, C, 2, a provides a specific guideline for:

A) Treatment directed at the malignancy
B) Coding and sequencing of complications
C) Determining extent of malignancy
D) Treatment of secondary site

Question 54

The categories E10, E11, E13 for diabetes reflect what specificity?

A) whether daily insulin is needed for control of the condition
B) the type of complications
C) the type of diabetes
D) the status of control of the condition

Question 55

Regarding SIRS, tachycardia is defined as:

A) Heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute
B) Heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute
C) Heart rate greater than 80 beats per minute
D) Heart rate greater than 110 beats per minute

Question 56

As septic shock is organ failure due to sepsis, documentation of septic shock alone indicates the presence of _______, and coding this condition requires two codes.

A) septic shock
B) systemic inflammatory response syndrome
C) sepsis
D) severe sepsis

Question 57

Counseling for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), when a patient returns for test results and the test result is negative, is described by which ICD-10-CM code?

A) R75
B) Z71.7
C) Z11.59
D) Z72.89

Question 58

When locating a code for a neoplasm, begin by:

A) indexing the histologic term
B) indexing "benign" or "malignant"
C) indexing the anatomical site
D) referencing the Table of Neoplasms

Question 59

Coding guidelines for determining the extent of the malignancy are found in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, g
B) I, C, 2, h
C) I, C, 2, f
D) I, C, 2, e

Question 60

Severe sepsis is:

A) the presence of toxins or disease in the blood
B) a response specifically to an infection
C) a form of organ failure of the vascular system
D) sepsis with organ failure

Question 61

Not all chapters have guidelines for coding conditions within the chapters because:

A) guidelines for some of the chapters have not yet been developed
B) some guidelines conflict with those provided in the general guidelines and are not published to reduce confusion
C) guidelines have been developed but are not yet published
D) guidelines are not necessary for some chapters

Question 62

All of the following are HIV-related opportunistic infections except:

A) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Herpes simplex or zoster virus
C) Leukemia
D) Lymphomas

Question 63

Section, Subsection I, C, 2, i provides correct coding guidelines for:

A) Malignancy in two or more contiguous sites
B) Coding and sequencing of complications
C) Primary malignancy previously excised
D) Admission/encounter for pain management

Question 64

Regarding SIRS, tachycardia is defined as:

A) Heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute
B) Heart rate greater than 80 beats per minute
C) Heart rate greater than 110 beats per minute
D) Heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute

Question 65

When an insulin pump malfunctions leading to overdosing, select the appropriate reporting and sequencing of resulting conditions:

A) code first the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then poisoning by insulin, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing
B) code first the appropriate diabetes code, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then poisoning by insulin, then the reason for the pump's presence, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing
C) code first conditions resulting from the overdosing, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, then the reason for the pump's presence, then poisoning by insulin, followed by the appropriate diabetes code
D) code first the reason for the pump's presence, then poisoning by insulin, then the mechanical complication due to the insulin pump, the appropriate diabetes code, and any additional codes for conditions resulting from the overdosing

Question 66

Most of the codes listed in Categories E08 through E13 are:

A) sequenced
B) combination
C) secondary
D) stand-alone

Question 67

The categories E10, E11, E13 for diabetes reflect what specificity?

A) the type of complications
B) whether daily insulin is needed for control of the condition
C) the type of diabetes
D) the status of control of the condition

Question 68

The Chapter Specific Coding Guidelines are found in:

A) Section I, C
B) Section I, A
C) Section I, D
D) Section I, B

Question 69

Section, Subsection I, C, 2, a provides a specific guideline for:

A) Determining extent of malignancy
B) Treatment of secondary site
C) Coding and sequencing of complications
D) Treatment directed at the malignancy

Question 70

A 27-year-old pregnant female in her second trimester presents with MSSA. Select the appropriate code selection and sequence:
? A41.01 Sepsis due to Methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus
? B95.61 Methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere
? O98.812 Other maternal infectious and parasitic diseases complicating pregnancy, second trimester

A) A41.01, B95.61, O98.812
B) O98.812, A41.01, B95.61
C) O98.812, A41.01
D) O98.819, A41.01

Question 71

Patient presents with postpancreatectomy diabetes mellitus following partial removal of the pancreas. Select the appropriate code(s).

A) E89.1, E13.-, Z90.411
B) Z90.411
C) Z90.410
D) E89.1

Question 72

Guidelines for Chapter 1, Infectious and Parasitic Diseases, include correct coding guidelines for:

A) HIV, SIRS, and cellulitis
B) HIV, sepsis, severe sepsis, septic shock, MRSA and ZIKA virus
C) HIV, sepsis, and severe sepsis only
D) HIV, septicemia, and SIRS only

Question 73

Correct coding guidelines regarding Treatment of secondary neoplasm site are outlined in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, a
B) I, C, 2, e
C) I, C, 2, b
D) I, C, 2, g

Question 74

Guidelines for correct coding of Admission/encounter for therapy of neoplasms are found in Section, Subsection:

A) I, C, 2, h
B) I, C, 2, e
C) I, C, 2, d
D) I, C, 2, i

Question 75

Select the false statement regarding use of code Z79.4:

A) it is possible that this code will not be used with a code for type II diabetes
B) it is appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type I diabetes when applicable
C) it is not appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type I diabetes
D) it is appropriate to use in conjunction with a code for type II diabetes when applicable

Question 76

A coder reviews a patient's medical chart and reads a laboratory report of blood work ordered by the physician after the patient's last visit. The patient presented with a chief complaint of general weakness and persistent cough as documented in the medical record and no further definitive diagnosis is documented. The coder sees that presence of HIV is confirmed in the laboratory report. The coder should:

A) Code HIV, general weakness, and persistent cough
B) Code general weakness only
C) Code HIV only
D) Code general weakness and persistent cough

Question 77

When an opportunistic infection, such as Kaposi's sarcoma of the lung, is documented in an HIV-positive patient's record, how may the coder report this diagnosis?

A) B20, C46.50
B) C46.50
C) B20
D) Z21

Question 78

The site of origin of the malignancy is referred to as:

A) secondary neoplasm
B) benign
C) primary neoplasm
D) malignant

Question 79

The presence of ______ signifies a progression of HIV disease from asymptomatic to symptomatic and shifts a patient's diagnosis from HIV to AIDS.

A) opportunistic infections
B) generalized weakness
C) bacterial infections
D) viral infections

Question 80

Regarding SIRS, tachypnea is defined as:

A) Respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute
B) Respiratory rate greater than 10 breaths per minute
C) Respiratory rate greater than 40 breaths per minute
D) Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute