Deck 9: Surgery Section: Musculoskeletal System

Question 1

What is the fibula?

A) upper leg bone
B) large, anterior lower leg bone
C) small lateral bone of the lower leg
D) kneecap

Answer 1

small lateral bone of the lower leg

Question 2

What is the hardest tissue in the body?

A) diaphysis
B) bone
C) articulation
D) epiphyses

Answer 2

bone

Question 3

What is another word for arthrodesis?

A) grafting
B) fusion
C) harvesting
D) reduction

Answer 3

fusion

Question 4

Conditions of what body area are reported using codes M40-M54 Dorsopathies, in ICD-10-CM?

A) axial skeleton
B) spine
C) joints
D) skull

Question 5

Procedure codes involving the body area Back and Flank are found in which code range?

A) 22010-22899
B) 22900-22999
C) 21010-21499
D) 21920-21936

Question 6

The pubis is the:

A) front arch of the pelvis
B) upper portion of each hip bone
C) lower portion of each hip bone
D) back section of the hip bone

Question 7

The subheading "Inflammatory polyarthropathies" (M05-M14) contains all of the following conditions except:

A) juvenile arthritis
B) osteoarthritis
C) rheumatoid bursitis
D) rheumatoid arthritis with or without rheumatoid factor

Question 8

The bone of the face that is the base for the nasal septum is the:

A) mandible
B) maxillary
C) palatine
D) vomer

Question 9

Deep fascia lies beneath the _______ layer of subcutaneous tissue:

A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) third

Question 10

Which of the following is a true statement about the temporal bone in the skull?

A) it forms the forehead
B) it forms part of the nose, orbit, and floor of the cranium
C) it comprises the roof and upper sides of the cranium
D) it comprises the sides and base of the cranium

Question 11

The bone embedded in the tendon near the first digit of each foot is the:

A) sesamoid
B) tarsal
C) metatarsal
D) phalanges

Question 12

The maxillary bone:

A) forms part of the orbit at the inner angle of the eye
B) forms the cheekbones
C) comprises the lower jaw bone
D) comprises most of the upper jaw

Question 13

When an arthroscopy is performed at the same time as an arthrotomy, what modifier would be appropriate to append to the second code?

A) 59
B) 51
C) 52
D) 50

Question 14

Which of the following consists of the upper and lower extremities and makes body movement possible?

A) appendicular skeleton
B) perpendicular skeleton
C) axial skeleton
D) frontal skeleton

Question 15

A patient presents with an acute, traumatic tear of the rotator cuff. The coder will:

A) select a code from subheading "Dorsopathies"
B) select a code from subheading "Arthropathies"
C) select a code from Symptoms, Signs, and Ill Defined Conditions chapter
D) select a code from Injury and Poisoning chapter

Question 16

How are arthrocentesis, aspiration, and/or injection of a joint or bursa codes further subdivided?

A) size of joint or bursa
B) treatment or condition
C) anatomical site
D) one or multiple injections/aspirations

Question 17

In the General subsection of the CPT manual, in which subheading can a coder find biopsies performed on muscle or bone?

A) Wound Exploration - Trauma
B) Introduction or Removal
C) Incision
D) Excision

Question 18

Which Surgery subsection of the CPT manual contains the largest number of codes?

A) Integumentary
B) Nervous System
C) Cardiovascular
D) Musculoskeletal

Question 19

The axial skeleton is made up of all of the following bone structures except:

A) spinal column
B) skull
C) sternum
D) femur

Question 20

This bone forms the point of the shoulder:

A) olecranon process
B) acromion
C) scapula
D) clavicle

Question 21

Select the disorder that is not considered to be a disorder of the connective tissue and, therefore, is not found in the subheading Systemic connective tissue disorders (M30-M36) in ICD-10-CM:

A) systemic sclerosis
B) polyarteritis
C) poliomyelitis
D) systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 22

All of the following are means of organization within the Musculoskeletal subsection except:

A) type of tissue
B) anatomical site
C) treatment or condition
D) approach or technique

Question 23

The palms of the hands are made up of:

A) ulnas
B) patellas
C) metacarpals
D) phalanges

Question 24

What is the main difference between the bones of the hands and the bones of the wrist?

A) The bones of the hands are long and the bones of the wrist are short
B) The bones of the hands are long and the bones of the wrist are irregular
C) The bones of the hands are irregular and the bones of the wrist are long
D) The bones of the hands are short and the bones of the wrist are long

Question 25

During an excisional procedure, when no tissue remains to send to pathology, this procedure is said to be a(n):

A) destruction
B) excision
C) annihilation
D) biopsy

Question 26

A patient presents for surgical removal of the hardware inserted to treat a previous bimalleolar fracture. Some scar tissue must be removed in order to access the hardware. Three incisions were made to complete this procedure. How should the coder appropriately assign codes to report this procedure?

A) Assign one code for the hardware removal
B) Assign three codes for the hardware removal
C) Code for the scar tissue removal, and three codes for the hardware removal
D) Code for the scar tissue removal, and one code for the hardware removal

Question 27

The subheading "Arthropathies" in ICD-10-CM is inclusive of all body areas with the exception of the:

A) hips
B) feet
C) spine
D) wrist

Question 28

When a device (rod) is attached by hooks or screws to the spine at each end of the device and to at least one other point of the spine along the device, this is called:

A) external fixation
B) segmental instrumentation
C) internal fixation
D) nonsegmental instrumentation

Question 29

Select the muscle that is located in the walls of internal organs:

A) skeletal
B) ligament
C) tendon
D) smooth

Question 30

Select the correct definition of a tendon:

A) narrow band of non-elastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to a bone
B) located in walls of internal organs; unstriated and involuntary muscles
C) bands of fibrous tissue that connect two or more bones or cartilage
D) striated, voluntary muscles

Question 31

Per the ICD-10-CM Manual infectious arthropathies (M00-M09) are due to microbiological agents and code selection distinction is made between which of the types of etiological relationship?

A) Reactive arthropathy
B) Indirect infection
C) Direct infection
D) Direct infection, reactive arthropathy, and postinfective arthropathy

Question 32

When wires, pins, screws, etc., are placed through or within the fracture site in order to stabilize the fracture, this is called:

A) internal fixation
B) skeletal manipulation
C) external fixation
D) closed fracture

Question 33

When a device (rod) is attached by hooks or screws to the spine only at each end of the device, this is called:

A) segmental instrumentation
B) external fixation
C) nonsegmental instrumentation
D) internal fixation

Question 34

Select the muscle that is not part of the Quadriceps femoris:

A) Vastus lateralis
B) Fibularis
C) Vastus intermedius
D) Vastus medialis

Question 35

Which type of muscles form the muscular wall of the heart?

A) myocardial
B) smooth
C) ligament
D) skeletal

Question 36

The terms "incisional, excisional, needle aspiration, punch, and shave" can be used to describe what type of procedure?

A) biopsy
B) destruction
C) graft
D) repair

Question 37

Which type of graft is not included in the subsection Grafts (or Implants)?

A) cartilage
B) bone
C) skin
D) tendon

Question 38

An injury to the body of the muscle or the attachment of a tendon is a:

A) strain
B) sprain
C) shin splint
D) hamstring injury

Question 39

Select the documentation terminology that would not support selecting a code from subheading Wound Exploration - Trauma:

A) penetrating
B) superficial
C) stab
D) trauma

Question 40

The application of force to a limb through a wire, pin, screw, or clamp that is attached to a bone is:

A) skeletal traction
B) manipulation
C) external fixation
D) skin traction

Question 41

What is the thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density over time?

A) osteoarthritis
B) malunion
C) pathologic fracture
D) osteoporosis

Question 42

Identify the correct subdivision of the Excision subheading regarding cysts:

A) benign vs. malignant
B) size and type (benign vs. malignant)
C) location and size
D) anatomic site

Question 43

The degeneration, decline of tissue or organs, or wasting of tissue or organs is referred to as:

A) scarring
B) atrophy
C) impingement syndrome
D) fascioplasty

Question 44

Select the first question that a coder must ask himself/herself when the code selection process begins.

A) What approach or technique was used (open, scope, or percutaneous)?
B) Was the procedure performed on muscle, soft tissue, or bone?
C) Was the treatment for a traumatic injury (acute) or a medical condition (chronic)?
D) What is the most specific anatomical site?

Question 45

Select the term that is used to describe the collar bone:

A) scapula
B) clavicle
C) femur
D) ulna

Question 46

The word root cervic/o signifies:

A) thorax
B) axis
C) lumbar
D) neck

Question 47

What is the name for the place where two or more bones meet?

A) medullary cavity
B) joint
C) periosteum
D) axial skeleton

Question 48

The medical term arthr/o signifies:

A) joint
B) cartilage
C) axis
D) forehead

Question 49

The large projection on the upper end of the ulna that forms the point of the elbow is the:

A) olecranon process
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) acromion

Question 50

Select the correct definition of the diaphysis:

A) acts as a shock absorber between bones
B) shaft of a long bone
C) immovable joint
D) forms outermost covering of bone

Question 51

In which code range can a coder find Diseases of the musculoskeletal system and connective tissues in the ICD-10-CM manual?

A) S00-T88
B) M00-M99
C) L00-L99
D) V00-Y99

Question 52

Which bone is located in the upper arm?

A) radius
B) humerus
C) olecranon process
D) ulna

Question 53

The subheading "Arthropathies " is further subdivided in ICD-10-CM. Select the subheading that is not a subdivision in ICD-10-CM:

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Other Joint Disorders
C) Infectious Arthropathies
D) Disorders of Bone Density and Structure

Question 54

Code range 26010-26989 contains procedure codes on which body area?

A) Hands and Fingers
B) Spine
C) Shoulder
D) Head

Question 55

When a replantation of an incomplete amputation is performed, which modifier is appropriate to append to the code to accurately report the extent of the service?

A) 59
B) 52
C) 50
D) 51

Question 56

Select the definition of the term "myofascial":

A) pertaining to fascia and muscle
B) striated muscle
C) group of fibers that are held together by connective tissue
D) narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue

Question 57

The radius is:

A) the upper arm
B) the long bone of the finger
C) the smaller bone in the forearm
D) the larger bone in the forearm

Question 58

All of the following are subheadings found in each anatomical heading in the Musculoskeletal subsection of CPT except:

A) Manipulation
B) Arthrocentesis
C) Introduction or Removal
D) Repair, Revision, and/or Reconstruction

Question 59

Which bone forms the part of the foot to which the bones are attached?

A) metatarsal
B) phalanges
C) sesamoid
D) tarsal

Question 60

A ligament is:

A) striated, voluntary muscles
B) bands of fibrous tissue that connect two or more bones or cartilage
C) located in walls of internal organs; unstriated and involuntary muscles
D) narrow band of non-elastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue which attaches muscle to a bone

Question 61

An excision of a soft tissue or bone tumor that requires excision of surrounding soft tissue is called a:

A) subfascial
B) fascial
C) radical resection
D) subcutaneous

Question 62

The upper portion of the hip bone is the:

A) ischium
B) tibia
C) pubis
D) ilium

Question 63

What are groups of fibers that are held together by connective tissue and enclosed in a fibrous sheath?

A) skeletal muscles
B) smooth muscles
C) fascia
D) muscle fibers

Question 64

In what chapter are Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System and Connective Tissue found in the ICD-10-CM manual?

A) 12
B) 10
C) 11
D) 13

Question 65

The skull bone that forms the roof and upper sides of the cranium is called the:

A) parietal
B) ethomoid
C) frontal
D) sphenoid

Question 66

Where is spongy bone located?

A) outermost covering of bone
B) outer layer of the bones
C) ends and inner portions of long bones
D) shaft of the bone

Question 67

The bone of the face that makes up part of the orbit at the inner angle of the eye is the:

A) mandible
B) palatine
C) vomer
D) lacrimal

Question 68

In which code range can a coder find endoscopic and arthroscopic procedures performed on the Musculoskeletal system?

A) 29800-29999
B) 27301-27599
C) 26990-27299
D) 28001-28899

Question 69

All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except:

A) facilitate passage of blood through the body
B) protect internal organs
C) make blood cells
D) support and shape the body

Question 70

Select the list of anatomical headings in the Musculoskeletal subheading that include subsection-specific notes:

A) Head, Spine, Shoulder, Humerus and Elbow, Forearm and Wrist, Pelvis and Hip Joint, and Femur and Knee Joint
B) Skull, Shoulder, Elbow, Pelvis and Hip Joint
C) Spine, Shoulder, Wrist, Pelvis and Hip Joint, Arthrodesis, Hands and Feet
D) Skull, Shoulder and Elbow, Wrist and Fingers, Pelvis and Hip Joint, Spine

Question 71

Which part of the bone contains yellow bone marrow?

A) medullary cavity
B) cartilage
C) spongy bone
D) compact bone

Question 72

What is manipulation?

A) the application of force to a limb through a wire, pin, screw, or clamp that is attached to a bone
B) use of wires, pins, screws, etc., which are placed through or within the fracture site in order to stabilize the fracture
C) attempted reduction or restoration of a fracture or joint to its normal anatomic alignment by the application of manually applied force
D) skeletal pins attached to an external mechanism

Question 73

Select the list of anatomical headings in the Musculoskeletal subheading that include subsection-specific notes:

A) Head, Spine, Shoulder, Humerus and Elbow, Forearm and Wrist, Pelvis and Hip Joint, and Femur and Knee Joint
B) Spine, Shoulder, Wrist, Pelvis and Hip Joint, Arthrodesis, Hands and Feet
C) Skull, Shoulder and Elbow, Wrist and Fingers, Pelvis and Hip Joint, Spine
D) Skull, Shoulder, Elbow, Pelvis and Hip Joint

Question 74

The pubis is the:

A) upper portion of each hip bone
B) back section of the hip bone
C) front arch of the pelvis
D) lower portion of each hip bone

Question 75

What is manipulation?

A) the application of force to a limb through a wire, pin, screw, or clamp that is attached to a bone
B) attempted reduction or restoration of a fracture or joint to its normal anatomic alignment by the application of manually applied force
C) skeletal pins attached to an external mechanism
D) use of wires, pins, screws, etc., which are placed through or within the fracture site in order to stabilize the fracture

Question 76

The subheading "Inflammatory polyarthropathies" (M05-M14) contains all of the following conditions except:

A) osteoarthritis
B) rheumatoid bursitis
C) rheumatoid arthritis with or without rheumatoid factor
D) juvenile arthritis

Question 77

The word root cervic/o signifies:

A) neck
B) lumbar
C) axis
D) thorax

Question 78

The palms of the hands are made up of:

A) phalanges
B) patellas
C) metacarpals
D) ulnas

Question 79

Identify the correct subdivision of the Excision subheading regarding cysts:

A) anatomic site
B) location and size
C) benign vs. malignant
D) size and type (benign vs. malignant)

Question 80

Procedure codes involving the body area Back and Flank are found in which code range?

A) 22010-22899
B) 21010-21499
C) 22900-22999
D) 21920-21936