Deck 17: Radiology

Question 1

How are multiple fractures coded per ICD guidelines?

A) one code is assigned for the most severe fracture
B) codes are assigned for each fracture, listing the least severe to the most severe
C) codes are assigned for each fracture, listing the most severe to the least severe
D) one code is assigned to describe the most severe fracture in each body area

Answer 1

codes are assigned for each fracture, listing the most severe to the least severe

Question 2

What is the difference between an MRI and an MRA?

A) an MRI scan is used to visualize organs, while an MRA scan is used to visualize vessels
B) an MRA scan is always a more extensive procedure that requires more time
C) an MRI does not use contrast material; an MRA uses contrast material
D) an MRI scan is used to visualize bones, while an MRA scan is used to visualize organs

Answer 2

an MRI scan is used to visualize organs, while an MRA scan is used to visualize vessels

Question 3

Select the correct definition of the term distal:

A) above another body part
B) body part farthest from the point of reference, midpoint, or beginning
C) to the front of the body
D) below another body part

Answer 3

body part farthest from the point of reference, midpoint, or beginning

Question 4

Providers will use all of the following terms except ____ to describe nuclear medicine studies in documentation.

A) millicures
B) plane
C) radiopharmaceutical
D) microcuries

Question 5

A three-phase study bone scan contains all of the following components except:

A) delayed static images
B) initial vascular flow
C) uptake images
D) blood pool images

Question 6

Of the following common ICD categories used to report CPT codes, which is commonly used to bolster medical necessity for a radiologic procedure?

A) history of (personal or family)
B) aftercare
C) screening
D) signs/symptoms

Question 7

In which code range will a coder find procedure codes describing Radiologic Guidance in CPT?

A) 77261-77799
B) 77071-77084
C) 77051-77059
D) 77001-77022

Question 8

Which of these is a radiology imaging modality used to study structures in a body plane?

A) magnetic resonance imaging
B) fluoroscopy
C) computed tomography
D) brachytherapy

Question 9

Code 76705, Limited abdominal ultrasound is assigned when:

A) images taken are less than the definition of a complete abdominal ultrasound
B) the images taken are less than the definition of a complete retroperitoneal ultrasound
C) the images include the liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and upper abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava
D) the images include the kidneys, abdominal aorta, common iliac artery origins, and inferior vena cava

Question 10

How are codes in the Diagnostic Imaging subsection of CPT divided?

A) place of service
B) age of patient
C) length of procedure
D) anatomic site

Question 11

When used in the Radiology section of CPT, what does the acronym KUB stand for?

A) ubiquitin-protease system
B) karyolymph of the ulnar border
C) kidney, ureter, bladder
D) potassium, ubiquinol, barium

Question 12

In which code range will a coder find procedure codes classified as Bone/Joint Studies in CPT?

A) 77071-77084
B) 76506-76999
C) 77051-77059
D) 77001-77032

Question 13

Materials such as MDP, Xenon, and DTPA are examples of:

A) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
B) single-photon emission computed tomography
C) protease inhibitor
D) radiopharmaceuticals

Question 14

Select the correct modifier for the description Repeat procedure or service by another physician or another qualified healthcare professional:

A) 77
B) 62
C) 82
D) 79

Question 15

When a coder sees documentation of a centesis procedure performed to drain excess fluid, this typically is referring to:

A) arthritis
B) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
C) single-photon emission computed tomography
D) ascites

Question 16

Select the name of the horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions:

A) coronal
B) median
C) sagittal
D) axial

Question 17

Select the scenario in which it is appropriate to use an ICD abnormal-findings code:

A) when two radiologic exams demonstrate conflicting findings
B) when a patient presents with a chief complaint that is not evident following radiologic evaluation
C) when two radiologic exams confirm the suspected condition
D) when additional testing is required and the test results are negative

Question 18

How are codes for Clinical Treatment Planning and Simulation-Aided Field Settings further subdivided?

A) simple, intermediate, or complex
B) simple or complicated
C) age of the patient
D) anatomic site

Question 19

All of the following are examples of radioactive materials used to perform nuclear medicine procedures except:

A) cambriolite
B) iodine
C) Xenon
D) DTPA2

Question 20

Code 76770, Complete retroperitoneal ultrasound, is assigned when:

A) the images include the kidneys, abdominal aorta, common iliac artery origins, and inferior vena cava
B) the images taken are less than the definition of a complete retroperitoneal ultrasound
C) the images include the liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and upper abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava
D) when less than the definition of a complete retroperitoneal ultrasound is documented

Question 21

What does a DXA scan measure?

A) weight of bones
B) bone mass density
C) age of bones
D) length of bones

Question 22

What type of Radiology codes are found in code range 76506-76999?

A) Nuclear Medicine
B) Diagnostic Ultrasound
C) Radiation Oncology
D) Breast, Mammography

Question 23

A 45-year-old female patient presents for a screening mammogram. Upon examination, the screening test shows evidence of a calcification in the left breast. How would the coder appropriately assign diagnosis codes for this service?

A) list the screening code only
B) list the breast mass code only
C) list the breast mass code, then the screening code
D) list the screening code, then the breast mass code

Question 24

When a physician (radiologist) performs both the surgical component and the supervision and interpretation component of a procedure, how would the coder appropriately assign CPT codes to communicate this to a third-party payer?

A) assign one code from the Surgery section and one code from the Radiology section
B) assign one code from the Radiology section with modifier 26
C) assign one code from the Radiology section with modifier TC
D) assign one code from the Surgery section with modifier 26

Question 25

If a testing is performed to rule out or confirm a suspected diagnosis and the patient presents with signs and symptoms, this is a _________________:

A) diagnostic examination
B) routine procedure
C) rule-out procedure
D) screening examination

Question 26

The application of radioactive isotopes for internal radiation is:

A) simulation-aided field setting
B) brachytherapy
C) internal radiation
D) proton beam treatment delivery

Question 27

Code 76700, Complete abdominal ultrasound, must include:

A) images of a single organ or quadrant of the abdomen
B) images of the liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and upper abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava
C) images of the abdominal aorta and common iliac artery
D) images of the kidneys, abdominal aorta, common iliac artery origins, and inferior vena cava

Question 28

Select the radiology imaging modality that uses a magnetic field and radio waves to produce images of organs and tissues:

A) fluoroscopy
B) magnetic resonance imaging
C) brachytherapy
D) computed tomography

Question 29

The general heading Bone/Joint Studies contains codes for all of the following radiologic procedures except:

A) bone age studies
B) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scans
C) bone length studies
D) fracture assessments

Question 30

A diagnostic angiography is performed at the same session as an interventional procedure. The angiography is reported as a distinct procedure. Which modifier is appropriate to append to report this service?

A) 59
B) 79
C) 58
D) 51

Question 31

Ultrasound procedures are defined as:

A) A-mode, B-mode, M-mode
B) modular and scan
C) abdominal, retroperitoneal, limited, and complete
D) A-mode, M-mode, B-scan, and real-time scan

Question 32

Which term refers to decreasing the angle at the joint?

A) supination
B) pronation
C) flexion
D) extension

Question 33

A bone scan is performed on the shoulder. Which CPT code is correct to assign to this procedure?

A) 78315
B) 78306
C) 78305
D) 78300

Question 34

What is the term used to describe something to the front of the body or front of an organ?

A) superior/cephalic
B) inferior/caudal
C) anterior
D) proximal

Question 35

What is the body motion of bending upward?

A) extension
B) pronation
C) supination
D) flexion

Question 36

All of the following are questions a coder will typically answer when assigning a CPT code from the Radiology section except:

A) Was oral or IV contrast used?
B) Was the procedure for a traumatic injury or a medical condition?
C) What was the approach?
D) What was the number of views?

Question 37

How are many of the x-ray code descriptions in the Radiology section of CPT further subdivided?

A) number of views
B) placement of lead markers
C) use of contrast material
D) severity of injury

Question 38

What is nuclear medicine?

A) field of study involving diagnostic and therapeutic use of radioactive materials
B) visualization of the exact treatment area to determine the size and location of ports
C) computer-aided detection procedures
D) uptakes and imaging scans

Question 39

Which organ is being scanned in a hepatobiliary scan?

A) gallbladder
B) liver
C) spleen
D) kidney

Question 40

What is another name for an ultrasound procedure?

A) fluoroscopy
B) mammogram
C) sonography
D) Doppler

Question 41

Select the correct term for a study that creates real-time or moving images that are useful for diagnostic procedures and for guidance in interventional procedures:

A) endoscopy
B) x-ray
C) CT scan
D) fluoroscopy

Question 42

Of the following common ICD a category used to report CPT codes, which is used for encounters after the patient has finished active treatment for the fracture and is receiving care during healing or recovery?

A) screening
B) history of (personal or family)
C) aftercare
D) signs/symptoms

Question 43

Of the following common ICD categories used to report CPT codes, which is used when a radiologic exam is performed for early detection for a patient with no symptoms?

A) history of (personal or family)
B) screening
C) signs/symptoms
D) aftercare

Question 44

What is the development of a plan for the course of radiation therapy?

A) simulation-aided field setting
B) radiation treatment management
C) clinical treatment planning
D) radiation treatment delivery

Question 45

Radiology involves all of the following except:

A) treating injuries
B) treating diseases
C) preventing diseases
D) establishing diagnoses

Question 46

Where will one find codes for Radiation Oncology in CPT?

A) 76506-76999
B) 77261-77799
C) 77001-77022
D) 78012-79999

Question 47

What type of Radiology codes are found in code range 70010-76499?

A) Diagnostic Ultrasound
B) Radiologic Guidance
C) Diagnostic Radiology (Diagnostic Imaging)
D) Breast, Mammography

Question 48

A patient presents to the radiology department with an order for a CT scan. The provider's diagnostic statement supporting the scan is "severe cough, probable COPD." Upon examination, the CT scan does not show evidence of abnormality with the lungs and surrounding structures. How should the coder appropriately code this patient's diagnosis?

A) code the severe cough only
B) select code Z87.09, Personal history of other diseases of respiratory system
C) select code Z87.898, Personal history of other specified disease
D) code the severe cough and COPD

Question 49

What is the vertical plane running from front to back that divides the body into right and left sides?

A) axial
B) coronal
C) sagittal
D) median

Question 50

Where will a coder find guidelines regarding the reporting of diagnostic angiography and venography supervision and interpretation codes?

A) the beginning of the Cardiology subsection of the Surgery section
B) the beginning of the Surgery section
C) the beginning of the specific code ranges
D) the beginning of the Cardiology subsection of the Radiology section

Question 51

Katie presents to the oncology suite for radiation therapy for primary malignancy in the right breast. She is also experiencing nausea as a result of the therapy. Select the accurate reporting of Katie's diagnoses for today's service:

A) Primary malignancy right breast, nausea, admission for radiation therapy
B) Admission for radiation therapy, nausea, primary malignancy right breast
C) Nausea, primary malignancy right breast, admission for radiation therapy
D) Primary malignancy right breast, admission for radiation therapy

Question 52

What is the correct abbreviation for a single-photon emission computed tomography scan?

A) SET
B) SPECT
C) SECT
D) SPET

Question 53

Where are codes for procedures involving Breast, Mammography located in CPT?

A) 77001-77022
B) 77071-77084
C) 77046-77067
D) 77261-77799

Question 54

Codes for Diagnostic Imaging are divided by anatomic site; all of the following are subheadings in this subsection except:

A) Ears, Nose, and Throat
B) Upper extremities
C) Spine and Pelvis
D) Gastrointestinal tract

Question 55

The vertical plane running from side to side that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is the ______ plane:

A) axial
B) median
C) sagittal
D) coronal

Question 56

How are codes for MRI and MRA further subdivided?

A) place of service
B) with or without imaging markers
C) anatomic site
D) condition

Question 57

The codes in the Obstetrical subheading of the Pelvis general heading are further subdivided by all of the following except:

A) number of gestational sacs
B) approach
C) trimester
D) weight of fetus

Question 58

To locate a definitive or confirmed diagnosis within the provider documentation, coders should look for certain terms. These include all except which term listed below?

A) probable
B) impression
C) finding
D) conclusion

Question 59

Radioactive materials used in nuclear medicine procedures can be administered via all of the following routes except:

A) infusion
B) injection
C) inhalation
D) ingestion

Question 60

Select the correct description of modifier 76:

A) Repeat procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare provider
B) Staged or related procedure
C) Repeat procedure or service by another physician or another qualified healthcare professional
D) Surgical team

Question 61

Where are codes for Nuclear Medicine procedures located in CPT?

A) 77001-77022
B) 77261-77799
C) 78012-79999
D) 76506-76999

Question 62

A noninvasive test that uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images that are captured in real time and show structure, movement, and the flow of blood through blood vessels is called:

A) computed tomography
B) ultrasound
C) fluoroscopy
D) Doppler imaging

Question 63

What is the name of the procedure that visualizes and defines the exact treatment area and helps decide the size and location of ports?

A) simulation-aided field setting
B) clinical treatment planning
C) radiation treatment management
D) radiation treatment delivery

Question 64

In what code range will a coder find procedures involving nuclear medicine?

A) 77520-77525
B) 77427-77499
C) 77401-77425
D) 78012-79999

Question 65

Which of the following services are not found in the Radiology section of CPT?

A) Doppler imaging
B) magnetic resonance imaging
C) computed tomography
D) x-rays

Question 66

An orthopedic specialist provides only the professional component of a whole body scan, CPT code 78306. Which modifier is appropriate to append to report this service?

A) 59
B) 26
C) TC
D) 52

Question 67

Select the correct acronym for multigated acquisition scan:

A) MUGA
B) MUGAS
C) MAS
D) MUAS

Question 68

What is contrast material?

A) the background used, typically white, to provide contrast to the images of bones/tissues
B) markers placed at the site of the radiologic examination to indicate the area to be examined
C) a dye or another substance that is being used to enhance the image of an organ or tissue being examined
D) aprons used to protect the patient and the radiology technician from harmful radiation exposure

Question 69

In which code range will a coder find diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures performed on the thyroid?

A) 78300-78399
B) 78201-78299
C) 78414-78499
D) 78012-78099

Question 70

What is the development of a plan for the course of radiation therapy?

A) clinical treatment planning
B) radiation treatment management
C) simulation-aided field setting
D) radiation treatment delivery

Question 71

How are codes for Clinical Treatment Planning and Simulation-Aided Field Settings further subdivided?

A) simple or complicated
B) age of the patient
C) simple, intermediate, or complex
D) anatomic site

Question 72

How is the "whole body" defined in CPT code 78306?

A) either head to pelvis or torso to feet
B) neck to knees
C) head to waist
D) head to knees

Question 73

Ultrasound procedures are defined as:

A) A-mode, M-mode, B-scan, and real-time scan
B) modular and scan
C) abdominal, retroperitoneal, limited, and complete
D) A-mode, B-mode, M-mode

Question 74

Where will one find codes for Radiation Oncology in CPT?

A) 78012-79999
B) 77261-77799
C) 77001-77022
D) 76506-76999

Question 75

What is another name for an ultrasound procedure?

A) Doppler
B) mammogram
C) fluoroscopy
D) sonography

Question 76

A diagnostic angiography is performed at the same session as an interventional procedure. The angiography is reported as a distinct procedure. Which modifier is appropriate to append to report this service?

A) 59
B) 79
C) 51
D) 58

Question 77

What is the name of the plane through the middle of the body that divides the body into right and left halves?

A) sagittal
B) sagittal and median
C) coronal
D) median
E) axial

Question 78

What is the difference between an MRI and an MRA?

A) an MRI scan is used to visualize bones, while an MRA scan is used to visualize organs
B) an MRA scan is always a more extensive procedure that requires more time
C) an MRI scan is used to visualize organs, while an MRA scan is used to visualize vessels
D) an MRI does not use contrast material; an MRA uses contrast material

Question 79

When a coder sees documentation of a centesis procedure performed to drain excess fluid, this typically is referring to:

A) arthritis
B) dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
C) single-photon emission computed tomography
D) ascites

Question 80

Code 76705, Limited abdominal ultrasound is assigned when:

A) the images taken are less than the definition of a complete retroperitoneal ultrasound
B) images taken are less than the definition of a complete abdominal ultrasound
C) the images include the kidneys, abdominal aorta, common iliac artery origins, and inferior vena cava
D) the images include the liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and upper abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava