Deck 5: Physical Development: Birth, Motor Skills, and Growth

Question 1

Which of the following has been suggested as one of the mechanisms responsible for the onset of labour?

A) A triggering mechanism may operate by a signal from the fetal brain.
B) The aging placenta may play a role in that it is no longer able to nourish the fetus.
C) Maternal brain factors initiate muscle spasms.
D) Mechanisms responsible for initiating labour have not been explored.

Answer 1

A triggering mechanism may operate by a signal from the fetal brain.

Question 2

The average labour for a first baby lasts

A) 1 to 2 hours.
B) 3 to 5 hours.
C) 6 to 8 hours.
D) 8 to 16 hours.

Answer 2

8 to 16 hours.

Question 3

The average labour for a second baby lasts

A) 1 to 2 hours.
B) 3 to 5 hours.
C) 4 to 8 hours.
D) 8 to 16 hours.

Answer 3

4 to 8 hours.

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT indicative of a particular stage of labour?

A) Labour contractions
B) Narrowing of the uterus, ending with full dilation of the cervix
C) Delivery of the fetus
D) Delivery of the placenta and other remaining membranes

Question 5

The stage of labour during which the afterbirth is delivered often lasts

A) 15 to 20 minutes.
B) only minutes.
C) several hours
D) many hours.

Question 6

A mother-to-be is in the process of delivering her child. With each contraction she experiences, the people supporting her are urging her to PUSH! She is probably

A) in the initial stages of labour.
B) delivering the afterbirth.
C) in the second stage of labour.
D) in the third stage of labour.

Question 7

Which particular technological advancement is noted for permitting the ability to visualize the fetus, umbilical cord, and placenta during labour?

A) Cesarean section
B) Fetal distress
C) Ultrasound
D) The Lamaze method

Question 8

Fetal distress during the birth process is indicated by

A) back pain in the mother.
B) breech position.
C) unusually high or low fetal heart rate.
D) blood-tinged amniotic fluid.

Question 9

In 2005 in Canada, about _____ of births were done by cesarean section.

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true about caesarian sections?

A) There is less risk for infection for the mothers
B) In developed countries, it leads to lower levels of mortality
C) In developing countries, it leads to lower levels of mortality
D) In developed countries, it leads to higher levels of mortality

Question 11

In western countries it is common to find that pregnancy, labour, and delivery are

A) treated like symptoms of a serious medical condition.
B) accompanied by herbal remedies.
C) assisted by abdominal massage.
D) assigned different specific exercises.

Question 12

For difficult labour cases, midwives of Myanmar (formerly Burma)

A) massage the pregnant woman's abdomen with butter.
B) tread on the pregnant woman's abdomen with their feet.
C) massage the pregnant woman's abdomen with masticated roots.
D) give herbal medicines to the pregnant woman throughout labour.

Question 13

Throughout labour, the medicine man of the Cuna Indians (in Panama)

A) massages the pregnant woman's abdomen with butter.
B) treads on the pregnant woman's abdomen with his feet.
C) massages the pregnant woman's abdomen with masticated roots.
D) gives herbal medicines to the pregnant woman.

Question 14

Worldwide, just over ___________ women lose their lives each year from complications of labour and delivery.

A) 150,000
B) 250,000
C) 500,000
D) 1,000,000

Question 15

Infant mortality in Canada

A) has declined 25-fold over the last 70 years.
B) occurs at a higher rate than in the poorest communities of the United States.
C) occurs at about the same rate in each of the provinces and territories.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a useful indicator for practitioners trying to determine which infants are most at risk?

A) Maternal and family characteristics
B) The physical compromise of the newborn
C) The performance of the newborn on behavioural assessments
D) The quality of medical care provided before the pregnancy

Question 17

Most severe developmental problems can be attributed to events that occurred during

A) birth.
B) the first few weeks of life.
C) the prenatal period.
D) the parents' lives prior to pregnancy.

Question 18

Shauna, age 1 month, is discovered to suffer from a heart defect. It is most likely that this defect is due to

A) trauma Shauna experienced during birth.
B) rough treatment during the first few weeks of life.
C) events that occurred during the prenatal period.
D) damage to parental chromosomes prior to conception.

Question 19

In Canada, there is a gap between the richest and poorest communities in terms of

A) infant mortality rates.
B) the well-beings of mothers and their children.
C) the percentage of infants most at risk for developmental delays.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 20

In Canada, approximately _____ of babies are at risk due to the poor health, nutritional status, and economic and social conditions of their mothers.

A) 30%
B) 25%
C) 15%
D) 10%

Question 21

A newborn's low birth weight is an example of which type of indicator of risk?

A) Maternal and family characteristics
B) The physical compromise of the newborn
C) The performance of the newborn on behavioural assessments
D) None of the alternatives are correct.

Question 22

Each year, approximately __________ of babies born in Canada have a low birth weight.

A) 5 - 6%
B) 10 - 12%
C) 10 - 25%
D) 25 - 30%

Question 23

Myra's newborn was born at 36 weeks of gestation and weighed 5 pounds. According to this information, Myra's newborn suffers from

A) Small for gestional age (SGA)
B) Low birth weight
C) Prematurity
D) Cerebral palsy

Question 24

A deficit of oxygen supply to the cells that can produce brain or other tissue damage is referred to as

A) cerebral palsy.
B) asphyxia.
C) hyperoxia.
D) anoxia.

Question 25

A six-pound baby born at 36 gestational weeks would be considered

A) small for gestational age.
B) preterm.
C) low birth weight.
D) full term.

Question 26

Compared to babies born at 38 weeks gestation, preterm infants are:

A) more disorganized and difficult to soothe.
B) more likely to be born into economically advantaged families.
C) more likely to have more mature brain patterns.
D) always small-for-gestational age.

Question 27

Babies born at a weight in the bottom 10% of babies for that particular gestational age are classified as

A) small for their gestational age.
B) being in the lowest percentile for gestational weight.
C) light weights.
D) preterms.

Question 28

Babies considered to be small for gestational age (SGA)

A) are born before the end of the normal gestational period.
B) must weigh less than 2,500 grams.
C) weigh in the bottom 10% of babies born at a particular gestational age.
D) may weigh as much as average babies, but are unusually short.

Question 29

Which of the following is a typical symptom of small for gestational age (SGA) infants?

A) Hypertension
B) Appearing limp when held
C) Urinary tract infection
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 30

The developmental outcome for preterm infants born SGA depends MOST heavily on

A) normal rates of head growth up to 34 weeks of gestational age.
B) physical therapy to improve muscle tone.
C) the quality of the post-birth environment.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT among the techniques used in neonatal intensive care units?

A) Hearing recordings of the maternal heartbeat
B) Gentle massage
C) Exposure to high contrast mobiles
D) Avoidance of rocking and other physical movement

Question 32

Which of the following infant assessments is given immediately after birth and measures heart rate, respiration, muscle tone, response to a painful stimulus, and skin colour?

A) Apgar exam
B) Prechtl test
C) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
D) Bayley Scales

Question 33

Health care professionals use the Apgar test primarily to

A) predict future intelligence.
B) determine which infants will need special monitoring during the first days and weeks of life.
C) test for PKU.
D) monitor levels of bilirubin in the infant's bloodstream in order to prevent jaundice.

Question 34

A preterm baby is born in a small community hospital that lacks assessment tools. Given this, which measure of a newborn's physical status could most readily be used by the health care providers to decide whether this infant needs to be sent to a major medical center?

A) Apgar test
B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
C) Fetal distress test
D) Bayley Scales

Question 35

Which of the following correlates with lower infant scores on Apgar assessments?

A) Labour medication
B) Maternal depression
C) Maternal smoking
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 36

Which of the following functions is not assessed in the Apgar assessment?

A) Activity (muscle tone)
B) Smiling
C) Grimacing
D) Respiration

Question 37

The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale assesses

A) respiration, colour, and tone.
B) neurological functioning.
C) mother-infant attachment.
D) organized reactions to stimuli.

Question 38

A unique feature of the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale is that it

A) accurately indicates neonatal risk.
B) evaluates the newborn's ability to habituate.
C) accurately predicts adult intelligence.
D) evaluates personality indicators predictive of adult functioning.

Question 39

Newborn assessments are good indicators of

A) ultimate intelligence.
B) ultimate personality.
C) maternal health.
D) how a baby is doing in the early period.

Question 40

Parents were told in advance that they would see a filmed episode of a 5-month-old infant (crying) who, they were falsely forewarned, was normal, difficult, or premature. It was found that parents

A) reacted in the same way to the crying, regardless of whether they thought the infant was normal, difficult, or premature.
B) rated the crying of the baby they believed to be premature as most negative, but physiological measures did not indicate that the parents found the cries to be more stressful than usual.
C) rated the crying of the baby they believed to be premature as more negative, and physiological measures indicated they found the cries to be more stressful.
D) showed physiological reactions to the premature cries, but did not rate any of the cries as more aversive than any other.

Question 41

Studies suggest that prematurity stereotyping

A) is limited to the first months of life when differences between premature and full-term counterparts are apparent.
B) may contribute to a negative cycle between parent and infant.
C) helps parents deal more positively with the special needs of their preterm infant.
D) reflects parental attempts to deny that there is anything different about their preterm infant as compared to infants born at term.

Question 42

Studies suggest that the long-term developmental status of children born preterm is

A) affected by the number of siblings in the family.
B) improved by care to avoid early stimulation.
C) determined by the family's socioeconomic status.
D) unaffected by the parent-child relationship.

Question 43

Juana was born prematurely. Fortunately, her chances for a positive life outcome have been increased by

A) limited contact with her parents to reduce the risk of infection.
B) a calming environment with little stimulation to reduce agitation.
C) more opportunities for her mother to handle her.
D) enforcement of the prematurity stereotype that insures proper responsiveness by her caregivers.

Question 44

Which of the following is not a factor that is recognized to limit the long-term success of the preterm-parent relationship?

A) Prematurity stereotyping
B) Hospital policies
C) Financial distress
D) Whether the parent had also been preterm

Question 45

Which of the following statements is not true about kangaroo care?

A) Increases mothers' confidence in their infants' development
B) There is greater benefit for female infants
C) It protects against developmental delay
D) It facilitates the growth and development

Question 46

When a breathing bear, as compared to when a non-breathing bear, is placed in the incubator with a preterm, the baby tends to

A) avoid it.
B) cry whenever it breathes.
C) spend more time near it in quiet sleep.
D) breathe better.

Question 47

Since the 1960s, researchers have come to see the behaviour of newborns as increasingly

A) organized.
B) passive.
C) arrhythmic.
D) dependent on external stimulation.

Question 48

Peter Wolff defined the states of infant alertness as

A) REM and nonREM sleep.
B) asleep and awake.
C) REM sleep, nonREM sleep, drowsiness, fussiness, light crying, intense crying.
D) deep sleep, light sleep, drowsiness, alert inactivity, alert activity, crying.

Question 49

The electroencephalograph (EEG) measures brain activity by sensing minute electrical changes at the top of the skull. EEG measures of babies

A) supports the distinction between Wolff's six levels of alertness.
B) show that Wolff's six levels become increasingly distinct with age.
C) change with age.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 50

Which of the following is characteristic of light sleep in the states of infant alertness?

A) Regular breathing, eyes closed with no eye movements, no activity except occasional jerky movements
B) Eyes closed but rapid eye movements can be observed, activity level is low, movements are smooth, breathing may be irregular
C) Eyes may open and close but look dull when open, responses to stimulation are delayed, and activity level varies
D) None of the alternatives are correct.

Question 51

REM refers to a __________ stage of sleep in which the eyes __________ under closed eyelids.

A) deep; rarely move
B) light; move rapidly
C) deep; move rapidly
D) light; rarely move

Question 52

Researchers speculate that the purpose of REM sleep in early infancy is to

A) stimulate nerve pathways.
B) regulate respiration.
C) exercise the eye muscles.
D) stimulate the growth of additional brain cells.

Question 53

Which of the following statements most accurately describes why at-risk babies, such as those born to alcoholic mothers, have a less organized sleep pattern?

A) The alcoholic mothers are unable to set a proper sleep schedule for their baby
B) The organization of sleep states reflects brain maturation
C) The baby is unable to be organized because of lack of oxygen at birth
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 54

SIDS refers to

A) the sudden, unexpected death of an infant under one year of age.
B) sudden infant death due to abusive treatment.
C) surgically induced delivery schedules
D) sibling-involved disorder syndrome.

Question 55

A new mother may receive considerable advice to help ensure her infant will not be a victim of SIDS. She should follow all except which of the following suggestions?

A) Avoid putting your baby to sleep on soft bedding.
B) Don't smoke inside your house.
C) Place your baby on his/her stomach to sleep.
D) Do not overheat your baby.

Question 56

Which of the following is not associated with an increased risk of SIDS?

A) Placing babies on their stomachs to sleep
B) Maternal smoking
C) High Apgar scores
D) Low birth weight

Question 57

Although it is common for mothers and infants to sleep in the same bed in many parts of the world, recent research has found that co-sleeping is a risk factor for

A) SIDS.
B) low quality infant REM sleep.
C) low Apgar scores.
D) maternal depression.

Question 58

Having an infant share a bed or at least a room with parents is

A) a rare practice in most of the world's cultures.
B) more common in middle-income U.S. families.
C) associated with a desire to develop a closeness with one's infant as well as the ease of feeding and care giving.
D) positively correlated with the desire to build the infant's independence.

Question 59

At what age period is the infant most vulnerable to SIDS?

A) Between 1 and 3 months
B) Between 2 and 4 months
C) Between 3 and 5 months
D) Between 4 and 6 months

Question 60

The sleep-wake cycle of very young infants appears to be governed primarily by

A) an internal, biologically programmed regulator of some sort.
B) hunger.
C) the behaviour of caregivers.
D) light.

Question 61

By 12 to 16 weeks of age

A) the pattern of sleeping at night and being awake during the day is typically clearly established.
B) the amount of sleep required has been reduced about 25% compared to a newborn.
C) dramatic changes in the sleep-wake cycle have not yet occurred.
D) active sleep occurs twice as much as quiet sleep.

Question 62

Typically, by what age has the night-sleep, day-wake pattern become clearly established?

A) by the end of the first week of life
B) by the end of the first two weeks of life
C) between 5 and 6 weeks after birth
D) between 12 and 16 weeks after birth

Question 63

The newborn infant engages in a cycle of active and quiet sleep that repeats every ________.

A) 50 to 60 minutes
B) 2 to 3 hours
C) 3 to 4 hours
D) 4 to 5 hours

Question 64

Which of the following babies is more likely to display day-night differences in their sleep cycle more quickly?

A) The newborn girl who stayed in her mother's room in the hospital
B) The newborn boy who stayed in the hospital nursery
C) The newborn girl who was born to an alcoholic mother
D) There is no way to predict differences in sleep cycles

Question 65

Which of the following reflexes evident in infancy is not typically inhibited by depression?

A) The palmar reflex
B) The stepping reflex
C) The rooting reflex
D) The tonic-neck reflex

Question 66

Which of the following reflexes should not disappear around 3 to 4 months of age in babies who are developing normally?

A) The rooting reflex
B) The tonic neck reflex
C) The palmar reflex
D) The plantar reflex

Question 67

Which of the following reflexes disappears at around 3 to 4 months of age in babies who are developing normally?

A) The blink reflex
B) The plantar or toe reflex
C) The palmar reflex
D) The swimming reflex

Question 68

Highly stereotyped automatic behaviours that occur in response to specific stimuli are known as

A) habits.
B) conditioned responses.
C) reflexes.
D) congenitally organized behaviours.

Question 69

The disappearance of the rooting reflex at around 3 months of age

A) is a sure sign of brain damage.
B) reflects normal brain development.
C) occurs only in bottle-fed infants.
D) indicates that the baby is now ready to eat solid foods.

Question 70

Three-month-old Ben is having a peaceful exchange with his daddy when big brother Michael suddenly drops a heavy crate full of wooden blocks. Ben responds by thrusting his arms outward, opening his hands, arching his back, and stretching his legs outward before bringing his arms back to centre with fists clenched. This response to a sudden noise is known as the

A) Moro reflex.
B) palmar reflex.
C) tonic neck reflex.
D) beginning of sibling rivalry.

Question 71

The absence of which reflex at birth indicates serious disturbance of the central nervous system?

A) The biceps reflex
B) The palmar grasp
C) The Moro reflex
D) The stepping reflex

Question 72

Practicing which of the following reflexes tends to lead to its strengthening (persistence)?

A) The rooting reflex
B) The stepping reflex
C) The Moro reflex
D) The blink reflex

Question 73

One difference between reflexes and congenitally organized behaviours is that

A) reflexes are clearly tied to the species' evolutionary history while congenitally organized behaviours are not.
B) reflexes rarely occur in the absence of a discrete, identifiable eliciting stimulus.
C) reflexes disappear during the first year of life while congenitally organized behaviours persist.
D) reflexes are present at birth while congenitally organized behaviours are not.

Question 74

Crying, sucking, and looking are

A) reflexes present at birth.
B) congenitally organized behaviours.
C) reflexive at first, but then come under the infant's control.
D) automatic and stereotyped responses to specific stimuli.

Question 75

Sucking is best described as a

A) reflex.
B) conditioned response.
C) congenitally organized behaviour.
D) unconditioned stimulus.

Question 76

Why does the textbook refer to sucking as a congenitally organized behaviour rather than a reflex?

A) It is reliably elicited by oral stimulation.
B) It is not influenced by infant state.
C) Infants do not suck spontaneously or while sleeping.
D) Infants adapt their sucking behaviour to different conditions.

Question 77

Sucking is an important newborn behaviour because it

A) enables the infant to get nourishment.
B) allows the infant to explore the world.
C) buffers the infant against pain and over stimulation.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 78

The crying behaviours of at-risk infants may set the parent-child relationship on a rocky course because

A) their cries tend to be judged by adults as more grating, piercing, and aversive than those of babies not at risk.
B) they have depressed rates of crying so do not communicate distress effectively.
C) the crying of at-risk infants tends to be quieter than that of babies not at risk so is more easily ignored by caregivers.
D) normal methods of comforting infants are rarely effective with babies at risk.

Question 79

Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Parents readily distinguish between the three types of infant cries identified by Wolff.
B) The crying of healthy, newborn infants is fairly characteristic in both pitch and rhythm.
C) Offering food is the best way to stop an infant's crying.
D) All of the alternatives are true.

Question 80

In the first month of life, crying behaviour is important in social interaction because it

A) keeps adults at bay, letting the baby rest.
B) draws adults closer.
C) makes the infant noticeable to all family members.
D) keeps attention focused on the physical aspect of infant care.