Deck 7: Employee Selection

Question 1

In their selection processes, employers are giving increasing emphasis to:

A) computer-based skills.
B) behavioural and attitudinal characteristics.
C) assessment centres.
D) unstructured interviews.

Answer 1

behavioural and attitudinal characteristics.

Question 2

Selection criteria should:

A) include all the performance indicators identified in recruitment.
B) correspond closely to how a job is performed now and in the future.
C) be consistent with the organisation's strategic direction and culture.
D) reflect the standard of applicants from which a choice is to be made.

Answer 2

be consistent with the organisation's strategic direction and culture.

Question 3

Which of the following is not one of the major research findings about interviewing?

A) Interviewees who play hard to get are rated more highly.
B) Unfavourable information outweighs favourable information.
C) Interviewers' post-interview ratings are highly related to their pre-interview impressions.
D) Interviewers are less likely to change their initial opinion of the applicant from positive to negative than from negative to positive.

Answer 3

Interviewers are less likely to change their initial opinion of the applicant from positive to negative than from negative to positive.

Question 4

Criteria that is used to distinguish successful from unsuccessful job performance is required to be:

A) objective and subjective.
B) vague and subjective.
C) reliable and valid.
D) flexible and situational.

Question 5

Validity in relation to selection refers to:

A) the value of the position to the organisation's future direction.
B) the extent to which something measures what it claims to measure.
C) the extent to which a measure is consistent and dependable.
D) how badly an applicant wants to acquire a particular position.

Question 6

The identification of criteria necessary for the successful performance of a job is derived from:

A) an employee skills inventory.
B) a job specification document.
C) the human resource plan.
D) a job description document.

Question 7

The two approaches that HR managers use to determine the validity of criteria are:

A) past performance and future strategies.
B) concurrent validity and predictive validity.
C) subjective observation and behavioural patterns.
D) performance validity and result validity.

Question 8

If a performance predictor lacks reliability an organisation could find that the applicant chosen for a position:

A) is totally unable to perform the tasks required.
B) is unaware of the necessary tasks to be performed on the job.
C) may perform well one time and poorly the next.
D) does not have a personality to fit the existing culture.

Question 9

Test/retest, split halves, and parallel forms are all methods for measuring:

A) employee ability.
B) organisation compatibility.
C) employee personality.
D) predictor reliability.

Question 10

The most correct order of the steps in the selection process is:

A) application form; interview; medical examination; placement on the job.
B) placement on the job; background investigation; medical examination.
C) preliminary interview; background investigation; interview.
D) preliminary screening; application form; placement on the job.

Question 11

When using telephone screening to determine if candidates satisfy minimum requirements, the questions asked should be:

A) related to formal qualifications and relevant experience.
B) related to issues critical to job requirements.
C) varied according to the age and sex of the applicant.
D) open-ended and enquire about previous positions held.

Question 12

Behavioural interviews are based on the assumption that:

A) an unstructured interview is a better indicator of future performance.
B) the best predictor of future performance is past performance.
C) interviewing as a selection technique has serious shortcomings.
D) peoples' behaviour in interviews follows predictable patterns.

Question 13

Where there is an attempt to identify the relationship between an application form item and job performance measures, this is known as a:

A) numbered application form.
B) detailed personality test.
C) performance review form.
D) weighted application form.

Question 14

The completed application form is:

A) a strong predictor of success in lower level positions.
B) becoming cluttered with non-job related questions.
C) a valuable tool in screening out unqualified applicants.
D) no longer a useful selection tool in an age of on-line applications.

Question 15

What information should NOT be requested on an application form?

A) Criminal records and/or traffic convictions
B) Previous employment
C) Qualifications
D) Contact details of referees

Question 16

The curtailment of the polygraph in the US has seen the widespread adoption of:

A) assessment centres.
B) panel interviews.
C) genetic screening.
D) honesty tests.

Question 17

Which of the following tests have traditionally been the most difficult tests to evaluate and the most sensitive to use in employee selection?

A) Aptitude tests
B) Intelligence tests
C) Personality tests
D) Interest tests.

Question 18

Interest tests are specifically useful for:

A) helping individuals contemplating a career change.
B) measuring a candidate's ability to learn quickly.
C) predicting aptitude for a particular type of job.
D) measuring a candidate's emotional stability.

Question 19

In-basket exercises dealing with a series of memos, emails and letters is a selection tool associated with:

A) group interviews.
B) polygraph tests.
C) assessment centres.
D) honesty tests.

Question 20

Face validity refers to:

A) where a test item or question appears to make sense or to be logical.
B) the extent to which a measure is consistent and dependable.
C) the ability of a test or other selection tool to measure what it sets out to measure.
D) a statistical procedure showing the strength of the relationship between two variables.

Question 21

The most widely used selection technique is the:

A) aptitude test.
B) employment interview.
C) assessment centre.
D) personality test.

Question 22

Using a structured interview:

A) ensures that the interviewee feels that their application is taken seriously.
B) ensures that all relevant information on the candidate is systematically covered.
C) allows the interviewer to focus on specific issues that are crucial to the applicant's ability to perform the job.
D) ensures that all members of the interview panel have some input into the selection decision.

Question 23

Behavioural interviews are based on the assumption that:

A) an unstructured interview is a better indicator of future performance.
B) the best predictor of future performance is past performance.
C) interviewing as a selection technique has serious shortcomings.
D) people's behaviour in interviews follows predictable patterns.

Question 24

The purpose of the employment interview is:

A) to give and get information that will help the interviewer make a decision about the applicant's suitability.
B) to clarify and check the accuracy of information provided in the application form.
C) to determine whether the candidate has the character and personality to work well with existing employees.
D) to ensure that the organisation is adhering to regulations relating to EEO legislation.

Question 25

Meetings in which several job applicants interact in the presence of one or more company representatives is known as:

A) group interviews.
B) panel interviews.
C) group screenings.
D) group assessment.

Question 26

Research shows that interviewers make a judgement about an applicant:

A) when reading the written application.
B) after the interview has concluded.
C) in the first three to five minutes of the interview.
D) based on their ability to communicate.

Question 27

The most correct statement about research and the employment interview is:

A) interviewers develop their own stereotypes of a good applicant and select those who match the stereotype.
B) favourable information outweighs unfavourable information.
C) interviewers are more likely to change their initial opinion of an applicant from negative to positive than from positive to negative.
D) applicants who demonstrate greater eye contact, head moving, smiling and other similar non-verbal behaviour receive lower evaluations.

Question 28

In order to guarantee a safe working environment, organisations such as Qantas use:

A) random drug tests.
B) genetic screening.
C) medical examinations.
D) screening for HIV/AIDS.

Question 29

The approach to selection that uses a series of steps, and eliminates candidates who fail a step is the:

A) the compensatory approach.
B) the collective step approach.
C) the successive hurdles approach.
D) the contemporary behavioural approach.

Question 30

An accurate record of interview should be kept because:

A) it can help to remind the interviewer why certain decisions were made.
B) it can help to prove that the selection decision was not discriminatory.
C) human resources/personnel need to have copies on file for audit purposes.
D) it can be used to monitor the effectiveness of recruitment and selection processes.

Question 31

Biographical information blanks are used to:

A) collect relevant personal data about each applicant for the personnel files.
B) compare the responses given by applicants with those of high-performing employees.
C) ensure an increase of workforce diversity in the organisation's staff profile.
D) check the accuracy of data collected during the interview from each candidate.

Question 32

A disadvantage of panel interviews is:

A) a less thorough questioning of the applicant is likely.
B) a less thorough preparation of the interview is undertaken by panel members.
C) the experience can be quite stressful for the interviewee.
D) it fails to overcome any idiosyncratic biases that individual interviewers might have.

Question 33

Which of the following questions can be asked in an application form?

A) What is your place of birth?
B) Are you an Australian resident?
C) What is the name of your spouse's employer?
D) Is English your first language?

Question 34

The Stromberg Dexterity Test and the Australian Council for Educational Research (ACER) Mechanical Reasoning Test are examples of which type of test?

A) Interest test
B) Aptitude test
C) Personality test
D) Intelligence test

Question 35

Which of the following are known as the 'Big Five' of personality dimensions?

A) Emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, extroversion and openness
B) Emotional stability, need for control, conscientiousness, introversion and openness
C) Assertiveness, need for control, conscientiousness, extroversion and openness.
D) Assertiveness, agreeableness, creativity, introversion and ambition.

Question 36

Without a systematic approach that examines reliability and validity:

A) the selection decision can be undermined by poor interviewing techniques.
B) the job description and job specifications will reveal misleading information about a position.
C) no relationships can be demonstrated between predictors and criteria.
D) it will be impossible to determine the most effective selection criteria.

Question 37

Some personality tests have limited value in employee selection and:

A) are culturally biased against some groups.
B) are difficult to develop and administer.
C) make it difficult for the applicant to fabricate answers.
D) are difficult to justify to EEO authorities.

Question 38

If conducted properly selection tests can:

A) increase management control across the organisation.
B) help managers make decisions about optimal job/person fit.
C) promote workforce diversity and EEO goals.
D) make the selection of job applicants more risky.

Question 39

Before using any form of selection test the organisation should consider all of the following EXCEPT:

A) staff attitudes.
B) legal liability.
C) job-relatedness.
D) equal opportunity.

Question 40

Which of the following questions asked at an interview is designed to reveal integrity/honesty/trustworthiness?

A) How would you describe your personality?
B) What have you learned from your mistakes?
C) If you could do anything in the world what would you do?
D) Have you ever experienced a loss for doing what was right?

Question 41

Some writers recommend the use of the term 'employment decision' rather than 'selection decision' since:

A) the interviewing process covers all the terms and conditions of employment.
B) the word 'selection' is subjective and its misuse can be a grounds for a lawsuit.
C) the latter term implies a one-way decision making process in which the organisation alone has the final say.
D) the term 'employment decision' is now used in selection in many countries around the world.

Question 42

In handling references, the most serious validity problem remains:

A) the inconsistent responses given by different referees about a candidate.
B) the unwillingness of referees to give frank opinions and evaluations.
C) the tendency for applicants to use current employers as referees.
D) the expressions and language used in the references which convey no meaning.

Question 43

How can organisations overcome concerns about candidates cheating on computer-based tests?

A) Ensure that candidates complete a statutory declaration prior to taking the test.
B) Have each candidate interviewed so that the results can be validated.
C) Making applicants aware that they will be reassessed under supervision if short-listed.
D) Ensure that all candidates complete an integrity test as part of the selection process.

Question 44

Stone recommends that interviewers adopt a number of tactics during interviews. Which of the following is NOT recommended?

A) Encourage the applicant to do most of the talking.
B) Put applicant at ease by discussing neutral topics.
C) Ask open-ended questions.
D) Keep the tone of the interview very formal.

Question 45

Which of the following questions should NOT be asked in an interview situation?

A) Do you think that you would like to work in this organisation?
B) What have you done that was innovative?
C) What are you most proud of?
D) What kinds of people would you rather not work with?

Question 46

Which of the following are NOT used by assessment centres?

A) Business games.
B) Psychological tests.
C) Phone interviews.
D) Group discussions.

Question 47

The compensatory approach involves:

A) considering all the selection data (favourable and unfavourable) before a selection decision is made.
B) screening out of candidates at each stage of the selection process.
C) screening out the unfavourable candidates.
D) identifying the favourable candidates and promoting them to the next stage of the selection process.

Question 48

The successive hurdles approach involves:

A) considering all the selection data (favourable and unfavourable) before a selection decision is made.
B) screening out of candidates at each stage of the selection process.
C) screening out the unfavourable candidates.
D) identifying the favourable candidates and promoting them to the next stage of the selection process.

Question 49

Which of the following is a sign that the applicant might be lying?

A) they smile a lot.
B) they are evasive to the question being asked.
C) they have their arms folded.
D) they answer yes/no to the questions being asked.

Question 50

EEO requires that, if tests are to be used in making employment decisions, they must:

A) comply with relevant EEO legislation.
B) be proven as being able to predict job performance.
C) be valid and reliable.
D) be related to the skills of the applicant.

Question 51

Critically discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the interview as a selection tool.

Question 52

Identify and explain the different tests that might be used in the selection process, and provide examples for the type of position which they would be most suitable for.

Question 53

Critically discuss how the information gathered during the job analysis can be used in the selection process to improve the chances of making a correct decision.

Question 54

Examine the impact on the job applicant and the organisation if accurate and realistic information about a position is not provided.

Question 55

Outline the importance of validity and reliability considerations in selection decisions.

Question 56

Identify and discuss a number of questions that should not be asked on an application form due to EEO discrimination.