Deck 5: Hematology
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Deck 5: Hematology
1
Which of the following statements regarding Pro time testing is false?
A) The major use of the Pro time test is to monitor patients who have been placed on anticoagulant therapy.
B) Patients taking anticoagulants will have lower Pro time and international normalized ratio (INR) results.
C) Patients with low Pro time results are in danger of internal clotting, which can cause strokes and heart attacks.
D) Patients who lack clotting factors, have liver disease, or are deficient in vitamin K will have higher Pro time results.
A) The major use of the Pro time test is to monitor patients who have been placed on anticoagulant therapy.
B) Patients taking anticoagulants will have lower Pro time and international normalized ratio (INR) results.
C) Patients with low Pro time results are in danger of internal clotting, which can cause strokes and heart attacks.
D) Patients who lack clotting factors, have liver disease, or are deficient in vitamin K will have higher Pro time results.
B
2
The erythrocyte indices:
A) aid in diagnosing anemia classifications.
B) provide information for hematocrit.
C) allow for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin.
D) compare the RBC count to the WBC count.
E) are taken from the ESR results.
A) aid in diagnosing anemia classifications.
B) provide information for hematocrit.
C) allow for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin.
D) compare the RBC count to the WBC count.
E) are taken from the ESR results.
A
3
Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is false?
A) The following technical interferences will increase the ESR result: vibrating surface, reading after 60 minutes, and tilting the sedimentation rate tube.
B) When plasma proteins increase, they cause the RBCs to stack together like poker chips, a condition known as rouleaux.
C) ESR tests cannot be performed on capillary blood because of the volume of blood needed.
D) The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.
A) The following technical interferences will increase the ESR result: vibrating surface, reading after 60 minutes, and tilting the sedimentation rate tube.
B) When plasma proteins increase, they cause the RBCs to stack together like poker chips, a condition known as rouleaux.
C) ESR tests cannot be performed on capillary blood because of the volume of blood needed.
D) The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.
D
4
Which of the following WBCs does not match the associated description?
A) Basophil becomes a mast cell when it enters the tissues to mediate the inflammatory response.
B) Lymphocyte is the smallest WBC.
C) Eosinophil increases in number during allergic reactions.
D) Neutrophil can differentiate into a T cell or B cell.
E) Monocyte is the largest WBC.
A) Basophil becomes a mast cell when it enters the tissues to mediate the inflammatory response.
B) Lymphocyte is the smallest WBC.
C) Eosinophil increases in number during allergic reactions.
D) Neutrophil can differentiate into a T cell or B cell.
E) Monocyte is the largest WBC.
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5
Which of the following statements regarding hematocrits is false?
A) If capillary blood from a finger is used for the microhematocrit, the capillary tube must not contain an anticoagulant.
B) Spun hematocrits should be performed in duplicate, with results falling within 2% of each other.
C) Note the appearance of the plasma for hemolysis (red) and/or lipemia (cloudy white due to high fat content).
D) One condition in which a high hematocrit value might be found is polycythemia.
A) If capillary blood from a finger is used for the microhematocrit, the capillary tube must not contain an anticoagulant.
B) Spun hematocrits should be performed in duplicate, with results falling within 2% of each other.
C) Note the appearance of the plasma for hemolysis (red) and/or lipemia (cloudy white due to high fat content).
D) One condition in which a high hematocrit value might be found is polycythemia.
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6
The complete blood count (CBC) generally includes all of the following except:
A) hemoglobin.
B) hematocrit.
C) ESR.
D) RBC count.
E) WBC count.
A) hemoglobin.
B) hematocrit.
C) ESR.
D) RBC count.
E) WBC count.
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7
Hematology is the study of:
A) blood chemistry.
B) proteins in the blood.
C) blood plasma.
D) formed elements in the blood and bone marrow.
E) infectious diseases in the blood.
A) blood chemistry.
B) proteins in the blood.
C) blood plasma.
D) formed elements in the blood and bone marrow.
E) infectious diseases in the blood.
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8
Which term does not match its description?
A) Erythrocytes are the most numerous blood cells, occupying almost 50% of blood volume.
B) Bands are immature neutrophils.
C) Platelets are fragments of cytoplasm.
D) Segs are mature neutrophils.
E) Basophils have coarse red granules in their cytoplasm.
A) Erythrocytes are the most numerous blood cells, occupying almost 50% of blood volume.
B) Bands are immature neutrophils.
C) Platelets are fragments of cytoplasm.
D) Segs are mature neutrophils.
E) Basophils have coarse red granules in their cytoplasm.
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9
Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
A) Eosinophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Basophil
E) Band/seg
A) Eosinophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Basophil
E) Band/seg
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10
The major component in the erythrocyte that carries oxygen is:
A) hematocrit.
B) hemoglobin.
C) plasma.
D) protein.
E) iron.
A) hematocrit.
B) hemoglobin.
C) plasma.
D) protein.
E) iron.
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11
Which of the following statements regarding the making and staining of a blood smear is true?
A) When identifying cells, one should note the size, shape, and color of the blood cell, its nucleus, and its cytoplasm.
B) Blood cells are observed and identified under the low power lens of the microscope.
C) A properly done blood smear will have a blunt edge at the end of the smear and a thinner distribution of blood cells in the heel of the slide.
D) Medical assistants are qualified to read and report a stained blood smear.
A) When identifying cells, one should note the size, shape, and color of the blood cell, its nucleus, and its cytoplasm.
B) Blood cells are observed and identified under the low power lens of the microscope.
C) A properly done blood smear will have a blunt edge at the end of the smear and a thinner distribution of blood cells in the heel of the slide.
D) Medical assistants are qualified to read and report a stained blood smear.
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12
Most CLIA-waived hematology tests use blood from a(n):
A) artery.
B) vein.
C) capillary.
D) Vacutainer.
E) syringe.
A) artery.
B) vein.
C) capillary.
D) Vacutainer.
E) syringe.
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13
Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood?
A) Prothrombin
B) White blood cells (WBCs)
C) Red blood cells (RBCs)
D) Platelets
A) Prothrombin
B) White blood cells (WBCs)
C) Red blood cells (RBCs)
D) Platelets
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14
A critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is vitamin:
A) A.
B) D.
C) E.
D) B.
E) K.
A) A.
B) D.
C) E.
D) B.
E) K.
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15
The anticoagulant and Vacutainer tube used for most hematology testing in a reference lab is:
A) heparin in a green-top tube.
B) heparin in a lavender-top tube.
C) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) in a green-top tube.
D) EDTA in a lavender-top tube.
E) none of these; no anticoagulant is needed for hematology tests.
A) heparin in a green-top tube.
B) heparin in a lavender-top tube.
C) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) in a green-top tube.
D) EDTA in a lavender-top tube.
E) none of these; no anticoagulant is needed for hematology tests.
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16
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17
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18
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19
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20
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21
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22
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23
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24
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25
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26
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