Deck 8: Pretrial Motions, Hearings, and Plea Negotiations
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Deck 8: Pretrial Motions, Hearings, and Plea Negotiations
1
The right of pretrial discovery was originally granted to the defendant upon the theory that the right would assist the defendant:
A) in obtaining the names of key witnesses.
B) in suppressing unfavorable testimony.
C) in establishing an alibi.
D) in the preparation of his or her case and would aid in obtaining a fair trial.
A) in obtaining the names of key witnesses.
B) in suppressing unfavorable testimony.
C) in establishing an alibi.
D) in the preparation of his or her case and would aid in obtaining a fair trial.
in the preparation of his or her case and would aid in obtaining a fair trial.
2
In states where pretrial discovery is not recognized, generally the defendant must rely on:
A) arraignment.
B) preliminary hearing.
C) trial judge's discretion.
D) None of the above are correct.
A) arraignment.
B) preliminary hearing.
C) trial judge's discretion.
D) None of the above are correct.
preliminary hearing.
3
The right of pretrial discovery may come into being by:
A) legislative action.
B) appellate court decisions.
C) appellate court decisions and/or legislative actions.
D) executive fiat.
A) legislative action.
B) appellate court decisions.
C) appellate court decisions and/or legislative actions.
D) executive fiat.
appellate court decisions and/or legislative actions.
4
The most convincing argument against granting the prosecution any right of discovery is that the right would be compelling the defendant to:
A) be a witness against himself or herself.
B) reveal the weakness in the defense case.
C) subject the witnesses to harassment.
D) reveal an alibi defense.
A) be a witness against himself or herself.
B) reveal the weakness in the defense case.
C) subject the witnesses to harassment.
D) reveal an alibi defense.
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5
The police searched Jerry's home without a warrant and found drugs under his bed. To contest the legality of the search, his counsel may file a motion to:
A) censure the police officers.
B) admit the evidence.
C) suppress the evidence.
D) determine the legality of the search.
A) censure the police officers.
B) admit the evidence.
C) suppress the evidence.
D) determine the legality of the search.
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6
Whether or not a continuance is granted is based on:
A) needs of the prosecution.
B) needs of the defense.
C) needs of the jury.
D) the discretion of the trial judge.
A) needs of the prosecution.
B) needs of the defense.
C) needs of the jury.
D) the discretion of the trial judge.
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7
When the prosecutor enters a nolle prosequi, he or she takes the following action.
A) Demands a swift trial
B) Requests that the trial court dismiss the action
C) Requests that the trial court censure the defense for misconduct
D) Requests that the trial court immediately issue a ruling on the motion
A) Demands a swift trial
B) Requests that the trial court dismiss the action
C) Requests that the trial court censure the defense for misconduct
D) Requests that the trial court immediately issue a ruling on the motion
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8
Most state laws generally provide that a continuance may not be granted except:
A) on request of the defendant.
B) on request of the prosecutor.
C) where the ends of justice require a continuance.
D) on request of the trial judge.
A) on request of the defendant.
B) on request of the prosecutor.
C) where the ends of justice require a continuance.
D) on request of the trial judge.
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9
Most state laws permit a series of crimes committed in one jurisdiction to be combined into one accusatory pleading. Each of the crimes charged in the accusatory pleading is referred to as a:
A) joinder
B) count.
C) beat.
D) severance.
A) joinder
B) count.
C) beat.
D) severance.
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10
If the competency of the defendant is in question:
A) the proceeding is stopped until the issue of competency is determined.
B) a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity is entered.
C) the defendant must be placed in a mental hospital.
D) the trial proceeds with the defense having the assistance of a psychiatrist.
A) the proceeding is stopped until the issue of competency is determined.
B) a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity is entered.
C) the defendant must be placed in a mental hospital.
D) the trial proceeds with the defense having the assistance of a psychiatrist.
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11
________ refers to the accused's mental state at the time of the accused act.
A) Competency
B) Insanity
C) Aptitude
D) Capability
A) Competency
B) Insanity
C) Aptitude
D) Capability
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12
A plea that has been agreed upon by the defendant and the state; a plea bargain.
A) Negotiated plea
B) Settlement
C) Defrayal
D) Resolution
A) Negotiated plea
B) Settlement
C) Defrayal
D) Resolution
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13
A motion presented prior to trial to determine the admissibility of certain items of evidence.
A) Privileged motion
B) Motion to dismiss
C) Severance motion
D) Motion to suppress evidence
A) Privileged motion
B) Motion to dismiss
C) Severance motion
D) Motion to suppress evidence
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14
As the trial date approaches, who will often call for a pretrial conference?
A) The prosecutor
B) The deference attorney
C) The trial judge
D) The court clerk
A) The prosecutor
B) The deference attorney
C) The trial judge
D) The court clerk
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15
The presentation of facts by ________ does not violate the defendant's right of confrontation, since the defendant has waived his or her right of confrontation of that particular witness, or witnesses, by agreeing to the facts.
A) stipulation
B) negotiation
C) joinder
D) severance
A) stipulation
B) negotiation
C) joinder
D) severance
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16
The agents of the state may not produce a plea by:
A) actual or threatened physical harm.
B) mental coercion overbearing the will of the defendant.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above.
A) actual or threatened physical harm.
B) mental coercion overbearing the will of the defendant.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above.
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17
The standard of voluntariness of a guilty plea was set forth in the ________ decision.
A) Brady
B) Spinelli
C) Agular
D) Jackson
A) Brady
B) Spinelli
C) Agular
D) Jackson
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18
It has been held that a negotiated plea should be related to the crime charged in the:
A) accusatory pleading.
B) bench warrant.
C) capias.
D) summons.
A) accusatory pleading.
B) bench warrant.
C) capias.
D) summons.
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19
The laws of most states hold that when two or more defendants are jointly charged with the same offense, they must be tried jointly unless the judge feels that in the best interest of justice separate trials should be granted. To grant a separation of charges is called?
A) Stipulation
B) Negotiation
C) Joinder
D) Severance
A) Stipulation
B) Negotiation
C) Joinder
D) Severance
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20
If the present mental state of the defendant is in question at any time prior to or during a trial, the defense counsel should make a motion for a hearing on:
A) competency.
B) stipulation.
C) negotiation.
D) joinder.
A) competency.
B) stipulation.
C) negotiation.
D) joinder.
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21
A motion may be made to the judge may be made:
A) orally
B) written
C) only through an attorney
D) both A and B
A) orally
B) written
C) only through an attorney
D) both A and B
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22
According to this rule, a defendant is entitled to the names and addresses of witnesses whom the government intends to call in case preparation, as well as any record of prior felony convictions of such witnesses.
A) Exclusionary Rule
B) Rule of omnibus motions
C) Rule of the continuance
D) Rule 16 of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure
A) Exclusionary Rule
B) Rule of omnibus motions
C) Rule of the continuance
D) Rule 16 of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure
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23
More motions are filed by the prosecution than by the defense.
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24
The right of discovery permits the opposite side to inspect the evidence held by the opposition.
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25
The right of discovery existed at common law.
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26
The right of discovery was created primarily for the benefit of the prosecution.
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27
The right of discovery comes into being by legislative action only.
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28
The U.S. Supreme Court has sanctioned the right of discovery by the prosecution.
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29
The inadmissibility of unlawfully obtained evidence is known as the Exclusionary Rule.
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30
If the accused commits a series of crimes of the same nature, those crimes may not be tried together.
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31
If two or more persons jointly commit a crime, they must be tried together.
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32
The U.S. Supreme Court has not sanctioned plea bargaining.
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33
The right of discovery, or inspection, is more closely related to the subject of evidence than to the procedures in the justice system.
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34
Jointly trying codefendants promotes economy and efficiency and avoids multiplicity of trials.
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35
Several states and the federal government have adopted the requirement that a defendant advise the prosecution in advance of the trial that an alibi defense is to be used.
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36
The hearing to suppress evidence can only be held prior to the state introducing the particular evidence once the trial has begun.
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37
Obtaining confessions and unreasonable searches and seizures are two areas that include numerous grounds for challenging the introduction of evidence.
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38
Generally, before a negotiated plea is accepted, the judge and the ________ must agree on the terms involved.
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39
A guilty plea may be withdrawn if the plea bargain is not complied with by either the judge or the ________.
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40
The right of discovery was originally created primarily for the benefit of the ________.
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41
A motion of ________ is based upon the premise that being tried on several counts during the same trial is prejudicial to the defendant.
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42
Without exceptions, the laws of most states hold that when two or more defendants are jointly charged with the same offense, they must be tried ________.
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43
Defendants often file a motion for severance to avoid the possibility of ________.
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44
If the present ________ of the defendant is in question at any time prior to or during a trial, the defense counsel should make a motion for a hearing on competency.
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45
If a(n) ________ hearing determines that a defendant is presently sane, the prosecutive proceedings will commence again from the point where they stopped.
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46
In a(n) ________ defense, the claim is that the accused was in another location at the time the crime was allegedly committed.
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47
Federal Rule of Evidence ________ permits discovery that is "relevant to the development of a possible defense."
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48
What pretrial discovery rights does the accused have in a criminal case?
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49
What pretrial discovery rights does the prosecution have?
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50
Explain the purpose and possible grounds for a motion to suppress.
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51
Under what circumstances would the defendant make a motion to dismiss charges?
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52
What are some of the possible grounds for a motion for a continuance?
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53
What circumstance may lead a prosecuting attorney to recommend that a charge be dismissed after it is filed?
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54
Why would attorneys and a judge want a pre-trial conference?
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55
Why might a prosecutor want to consolidate multiple charges against a defendant?
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