Deck 9: Motivation and Emotion
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Deck 9: Motivation and Emotion
1
What is the term for the forces that act on or within an organism to initiate, direct, or sustain behaviour?
A) motivation
B) drive
C) emotion
D) learning
A) motivation
B) drive
C) emotion
D) learning
motivation
2
Even though he is terrified of heights, Jeremy tried bungee jumping and found it so thrilling that he tried it again and again. Which of the following best explains Jeremy's continued interest in bungee jumping?
A) motivation
B) instinct theory
C) social learning theory
D) incentive value
A) motivation
B) instinct theory
C) social learning theory
D) incentive value
incentive value
3
Which of the following drives is best explained by incentives?
A) the drive for sleep
B) the drive for sex
C) the drive for food
D) the drive for approval
A) the drive for sleep
B) the drive for sex
C) the drive for food
D) the drive for approval
the drive for approval
4
Jalon works very hard in school to ensure that he will get accepted into law school. What is the most likely source of Jalon's motivation to study?
A) biological motives
B) learned motives
C) instinct
D) arousal theory
A) biological motives
B) learned motives
C) instinct
D) arousal theory
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5
What are the three major types of motives?
A) biological, stimulus, and learned motives
B) basic, pure, and meta motives
C) stimulus, biological, and basic motives
D) episodic, cyclic, and gradient motives
A) biological, stimulus, and learned motives
B) basic, pure, and meta motives
C) stimulus, biological, and basic motives
D) episodic, cyclic, and gradient motives
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6
What kind of needs do biological motives serve to satisfy?
A) survival needs
B) psychological needs
C) external needs
D) meta-needs
A) survival needs
B) psychological needs
C) external needs
D) meta-needs
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7
On the basis of religious faith, Muhammed, a starving Muslim, refuses to eat pork that has been made available to him. Which of the following has overpowered his hunger?
A) a learned motive
B) a stimulus motive
C) a biological motive
D) a basic need
A) a learned motive
B) a stimulus motive
C) a biological motive
D) a basic need
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8
What sort of motives include the need for activity, exploration, manipulation, and physical contact?
A) biological motives
B) learned motives
C) basic motives
D) stimulus motives
A) biological motives
B) learned motives
C) basic motives
D) stimulus motives
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9
Which of the following is classified as a learned motive?
A) pain avoidance
B) hunger
C) aggression
D) thirst
A) pain avoidance
B) hunger
C) aggression
D) thirst
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10
How are stimulus motives different from biological motives?
A) Stimulus motives are unlearned but necessary for survival.
B) Stimulus motives appear to be innate, but are not necessary for survival.
C) Stimulus motives are acquired through various forms of conditioning and learning.
D) Stimulus motives include needs for security, status, approval, and achievement.
A) Stimulus motives are unlearned but necessary for survival.
B) Stimulus motives appear to be innate, but are not necessary for survival.
C) Stimulus motives are acquired through various forms of conditioning and learning.
D) Stimulus motives include needs for security, status, approval, and achievement.
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11
Suppose you have the need to have others approve of your masculinity or femininity. What kind of need is this?
A) an arousal motive
B) a stimulus motive
C) a learned motive
D) a biological imperative
A) an arousal motive
B) a stimulus motive
C) a learned motive
D) a biological imperative
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12
In terms of our motivation, the influence of our personal and cultural experience on our wants and desires can most clearly be seen in the influence of which of the following?
A) homeostasis
B) incentive values
C) drives
D) needs
A) homeostasis
B) incentive values
C) drives
D) needs
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13
The body monitors and maintains internal states, such as body temperature and energy supplies, at relatively constant levels. What is this called?
A) incentive motives
B) instincts
C) circadian rhythms
D) homeostasis
A) incentive motives
B) instincts
C) circadian rhythms
D) homeostasis
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14
About 15 minutes after Janice starts a walk on the treadmill, she begins to perspire heavily and then starts to cool off. Her body's tendency to maintain normal body temperature is a function of which of the following?
A) homeostasis
B) instinct
C) drive
D) motivation
A) homeostasis
B) instinct
C) drive
D) motivation
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15
The authors of the textbook discuss research on procrastination and its relevance for college and university students. What is one of the main findings of this research?
A) students must forgive themselves for all previous procrastinating surrounding their schooling before they can avoid any future procrastinating in their studies
B) if students can forgive themselves for procrastinating on one exam, they will be less likely to procrastinate on subsequent exams
C) students who are not sufficiently motivated to study for an upcoming exam can generally expect to do poorly in their schooling
D) if students forgive themselves for procrastinating on an exam, they will be more likely to procrastinate on subsequent exams
A) students must forgive themselves for all previous procrastinating surrounding their schooling before they can avoid any future procrastinating in their studies
B) if students can forgive themselves for procrastinating on one exam, they will be less likely to procrastinate on subsequent exams
C) students who are not sufficiently motivated to study for an upcoming exam can generally expect to do poorly in their schooling
D) if students forgive themselves for procrastinating on an exam, they will be more likely to procrastinate on subsequent exams
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16
According to the textbook, approximately how long does it take to overcome the effects of jet lag?
A) jet lag takes two to three days to get over
B) jet lag can take up to a week to get over
C) jet lag can take up to two weeks to get over
D) jet lag can take up to four weeks to get over
A) jet lag takes two to three days to get over
B) jet lag can take up to a week to get over
C) jet lag can take up to two weeks to get over
D) jet lag can take up to four weeks to get over
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17
When is adaptation of circadian rhythms fastest?
A) when people travel from east to west
B) when people travel from west to east
C) when people travel during the right point of their biorhythms
D) when people travel after a period of sensory adaptation
A) when people travel from east to west
B) when people travel from west to east
C) when people travel during the right point of their biorhythms
D) when people travel after a period of sensory adaptation
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18
If you were to travel across five time zones, which of the following should you do to feel most rested?
A) pre-adapt yourself to the new schedule
B) go to sleep immediately on arrival in order to catch up
C) travel from west to east
D) try to fly late in the day if you are flying east
A) pre-adapt yourself to the new schedule
B) go to sleep immediately on arrival in order to catch up
C) travel from west to east
D) try to fly late in the day if you are flying east
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19
When does jet lag occur?
A) when a traveller's biorhythms are out of synchrony with local time
B) when a traveller's circadian rhythms are out of synchrony with local time
C) when a traveller's sensation-seeking patterns are out of synchrony with local time
D) when a traveller's opponent processes are out of synchrony with local time
A) when a traveller's biorhythms are out of synchrony with local time
B) when a traveller's circadian rhythms are out of synchrony with local time
C) when a traveller's sensation-seeking patterns are out of synchrony with local time
D) when a traveller's opponent processes are out of synchrony with local time
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20
Which of the following is a hunger signal?
A) ventromedial hypothalamus stimulation
B) activity in the lateral hypothalamus
C) high blood sugar
D) baseline (normal) blood sugar
A) ventromedial hypothalamus stimulation
B) activity in the lateral hypothalamus
C) high blood sugar
D) baseline (normal) blood sugar
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21
Which of the following occurs with people who have had their stomachs surgically removed?
A) they report not having hunger pangs
B) they may fail to eat regularly
C) they must be force fed
D) they still experience hunger
A) they report not having hunger pangs
B) they may fail to eat regularly
C) they must be force fed
D) they still experience hunger
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22
What is a critical physiological factor in controlling hunger?
A) levels of glucose in the blood
B) presence of hunger pangs
C) taste of food
D) adjustment of the body's set point
A) levels of glucose in the blood
B) presence of hunger pangs
C) taste of food
D) adjustment of the body's set point
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23
Diagnosed with cancer of the stomach, Carolyn had her stomach surgically removed. What will she most likely do after the operation?
A) eat more than before
B) starve
C) eat very little of anything
D) eat roughly the same as before
A) eat more than before
B) starve
C) eat very little of anything
D) eat roughly the same as before
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24
Dr. Campbell destroyed the satiation region of the hypothalamus of a laboratory rat. Which of the following will most likely result?
A) The rat will die of starvation.
B) The rat will eat until it becomes obese.
C) The rat's cholecystokinin (CKK) will increase.
D) The rat's insulin levels will decrease.
A) The rat will die of starvation.
B) The rat will eat until it becomes obese.
C) The rat's cholecystokinin (CKK) will increase.
D) The rat's insulin levels will decrease.
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25
If the ventromedial hypothalamus is damaged, which of the following will occur?
A) increased eating
B) satiation
C) increased glucagons-like peptide 1 (GLp) levels
D) decreased eating
A) increased eating
B) satiation
C) increased glucagons-like peptide 1 (GLp) levels
D) decreased eating
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26
Which area of the brain contains both the feeding centre and the satiety centre?
A) the amygdala
B) the hippocampus
C) the medulla
D) the hypothalamus
A) the amygdala
B) the hippocampus
C) the medulla
D) the hypothalamus
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27
Jonathan suffered a stroke that destroyed his lateral hypothalamus. What is this damage likely to cause Jonathan to do?
A) refuse to eat
B) never feel full
C) overeat
D) experience massive weight gain
A) refuse to eat
B) never feel full
C) overeat
D) experience massive weight gain
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28
Which structure is most closely associated with thirst?
A) the pancreas
B) the hypothalamus
C) the medulla
D) the thalamus
A) the pancreas
B) the hypothalamus
C) the medulla
D) the thalamus
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29
If Andrew goes to lunch and finds that the buffet offers many more foods than usual, what will he most likely do?
A) He will eat less food than normal.
B) He will eat more food than usual.
C) He will eat the same amount of food as usual.
D) He will eat more vegetables than he usually does.
A) He will eat less food than normal.
B) He will eat more food than usual.
C) He will eat the same amount of food as usual.
D) He will eat more vegetables than he usually does.
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30
As discussed in the textbook, the effects of our culture on eating are related to the effects of which of the following?
A) anxiety
B) incentive value
C) metabolic rate
D) how we interpret various tastes
A) anxiety
B) incentive value
C) metabolic rate
D) how we interpret various tastes
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31
What point does the textbook make regarding the comparison between smoking and weight gain?
A) It is easier to keep weight off if one diets after quitting smoking.
B) The potential for becoming obese is raised by nicotine.
C) More people being overweight has been a consequence of reduced smoking among the population.
D) For smokers, lower body weight set point lasts for 12 hours unless smoking is repeated.
A) It is easier to keep weight off if one diets after quitting smoking.
B) The potential for becoming obese is raised by nicotine.
C) More people being overweight has been a consequence of reduced smoking among the population.
D) For smokers, lower body weight set point lasts for 12 hours unless smoking is repeated.
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32
Rita has an intense fear of fatness and is willfully starving herself. Although she is emaciated, no longer has her menses, and has experienced tooth decay, Rita believes she still needs to lose weight.Which of the following conditions does Rita's behaviour exemplify?
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) dieting addiction
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) dieting addiction
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33
Which of the following has been found regarding "yo-yo" dieting?
A) it refers only to repeated weight loss
B) it tends to slow the body's metabolism
C) it makes it easier to lose weight when dieting, but also easier to regain weight when the dieting ends
D) it makes it easier to continue to lose weight when the dieting ends
A) it refers only to repeated weight loss
B) it tends to slow the body's metabolism
C) it makes it easier to lose weight when dieting, but also easier to regain weight when the dieting ends
D) it makes it easier to continue to lose weight when the dieting ends
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34
Tanya's parents have noticed that she has lost a considerable amount of weight, seems obsessed with food and dieting, and engages in relentless exercise. Although she's emaciated, she still feels she needs to lose more weight. Which of the following conditions does Tanya appear to have?
A) anorexia nervosa
B) bulimia nervosa
C) yo-yo dieting
D) ventromedial hypothalamus syndrome
A) anorexia nervosa
B) bulimia nervosa
C) yo-yo dieting
D) ventromedial hypothalamus syndrome
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35
Which of the following is a characteristic of bulimia nervosa?
A) under eating
B) repeated suicide attempts
C) use of vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics to lose weight
D) repeated attempts to lose weight by severe dieting
A) under eating
B) repeated suicide attempts
C) use of vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics to lose weight
D) repeated attempts to lose weight by severe dieting
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36
Rashid has lost 12 kilograms on a recent diet. Which of the following does he most likely have?
A) fewer fat cells than when dieting began
B) a lower metabolic rate than when dieting began
C) a permanent change in basic eating habits
D) an acquired taste aversion
A) fewer fat cells than when dieting began
B) a lower metabolic rate than when dieting began
C) a permanent change in basic eating habits
D) an acquired taste aversion
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37
Which condition's symptoms include tooth decay, sore throat, kidney damage, and hair loss?
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) yo-yo dieting
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) yo-yo dieting
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38
What do the eating disorders anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have in common?
A) They are easily cured with antidepressant drugs.
B) They are both growth phases that some adolescents go through that later disappear.
C) They are both extremely dangerous side effects of dieting.
D) They are both serious health-threatening problems.
A) They are easily cured with antidepressant drugs.
B) They are both growth phases that some adolescents go through that later disappear.
C) They are both extremely dangerous side effects of dieting.
D) They are both serious health-threatening problems.
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39
Karen sneaks off to eat large amounts of junk food, and then she takes laxatives to prevent weight gain. Her friends and family are not aware of her eating disorder because she appears to be healthy and of normal weight. What condition does Karen most likely have?
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) hypothalamic syndrome
A) bulimia nervosa
B) anorexia nervosa
C) amenorrhea
D) hypothalamic syndrome
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40
With eating disorders, what type of therapy is used to modify eating habits and attitudes about body weight and shape?
A) cognitive-behavioural therapy
B) Gestalt therapy
C) psychoanalysis
D) systematic desensitization
A) cognitive-behavioural therapy
B) Gestalt therapy
C) psychoanalysis
D) systematic desensitization
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41
Plain water is most satisfying when a person has which type of thirst?
A) intracellular thirst
B) hypothalamic thirst
C) extracellular thirst
D) homeostatic thirst
A) intracellular thirst
B) hypothalamic thirst
C) extracellular thirst
D) homeostatic thirst
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42
When does intracellular thirst occur?
A) Intracellular thirst occurs when water and minerals are lost by perspiring.
B) Intracellular thirst occurs when bleeding, vomiting, or diarrhea occur.
C) Intracellular thirst occurs when alcohol is consumed.
D) Intracellular thirst occurs when a salty meal is eaten.
A) Intracellular thirst occurs when water and minerals are lost by perspiring.
B) Intracellular thirst occurs when bleeding, vomiting, or diarrhea occur.
C) Intracellular thirst occurs when alcohol is consumed.
D) Intracellular thirst occurs when a salty meal is eaten.
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43
What do we call the period when female animals are sexually receptive?
A) menses
B) estrus
C) homeostasis
D) hormonal peak
A) menses
B) estrus
C) homeostasis
D) hormonal peak
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44
Which of the following is unusual regarding the sex drive?
A) Sex drive shows a clear relationship to deprivation.
B) Sex drive is homeostatic.
C) Sex drive arousal and reduction are both desired.
D) Sex drive is most intense when deprivation is prolonged.
A) Sex drive shows a clear relationship to deprivation.
B) Sex drive is homeostatic.
C) Sex drive arousal and reduction are both desired.
D) Sex drive is most intense when deprivation is prolonged.
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45
Which of the following is the correct order of human sexual response?
A) alertness, euphoria, orgasm, relaxation
B) intensity, excitement, plateau, orgasm
C) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
D) excitement, activation, orgasm, refractory period
A) alertness, euphoria, orgasm, relaxation
B) intensity, excitement, plateau, orgasm
C) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
D) excitement, activation, orgasm, refractory period
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46
Which term refers to whether we are attracted to people of the same sex, the opposite sex, or both sexes?
A) sexual orientation
B) gender identity
C) sex role
D) gender role
A) sexual orientation
B) gender identity
C) sex role
D) gender role
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47
What do we call the unspoken mental plans that guide our sexual behaviour?
A) erogenous zones
B) sexual scripts
C) the sexual response cycle
D) stimulus drives
A) erogenous zones
B) sexual scripts
C) the sexual response cycle
D) stimulus drives
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48
Although George and Esther are sexually involved, lately George has become sexually involved with another man. Which sexual preference does George have?
A) homosexual
B) transsexual
C) bisexual
D) heterosexual
A) homosexual
B) transsexual
C) bisexual
D) heterosexual
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49
If Karl has a preference for his own sex, which of the following is he?
A) homosexual
B) bisexual
C) heterosexual
D) transsexual
A) homosexual
B) bisexual
C) heterosexual
D) transsexual
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50
While taking an exam, Phyllis got up and shut the door because she was bothered by the noisy students in the hall. Which theory best explains Phyllis's behaviour?
A) sensation seeking theory
B) arousal theory
C) incentive theory
D) affiliation theory
A) sensation seeking theory
B) arousal theory
C) incentive theory
D) affiliation theory
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51
Jordan plays video games every day. After a month of continuous play, Jordan starts to find the games boring. Which theory of motivation is his behaviour consistent with?
A) arousal theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) instinct theory
D) incentive theory
A) arousal theory
B) opponent-process theory
C) instinct theory
D) incentive theory
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52
Which of the following theories suggests that performance on tasks is best when arousal level is appropriate to the difficulty of the task?
A) James-Lange theory
B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
C) Yerkes-Dodson law
D) instinctual theory of motivation
A) James-Lange theory
B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
C) Yerkes-Dodson law
D) instinctual theory of motivation
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53
The Yerkes-Dodson law is a part of which of the following?
A) instinct theory of motivation
B) stimulus motives theory of motivation
C) arousal theory of motivation
D) Maslow's theory of motivation
A) instinct theory of motivation
B) stimulus motives theory of motivation
C) arousal theory of motivation
D) Maslow's theory of motivation
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54
The inverted U function describes the relationship between which concepts?
A) deprivation and sex drive
B) stimulation and curiosity
C) arousal and performance
D) sex drive and satisfaction
A) deprivation and sex drive
B) stimulation and curiosity
C) arousal and performance
D) sex drive and satisfaction
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55
Elaine stayed up all night studying, and when her roommate quizzed her she could answer all the questions. But when she took the test she was extremely tired and performed poorly. How might her problem be explained?
A) habituation
B) James-Lange theory
C) Yerkes-Dodson law
D) Cannon-Bard theory
A) habituation
B) James-Lange theory
C) Yerkes-Dodson law
D) Cannon-Bard theory
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56
Which of the following applies to arousal theory?
A) An individual becomes most comfortable when arousal is too low or too high.
B) There is an ideal level of arousal for various activities.
C) Stimulus drives allow individuals to maintain high levels of arousal for as long as needed.
D) Individuals perform best at all tasks when arousal is very high.
A) An individual becomes most comfortable when arousal is too low or too high.
B) There is an ideal level of arousal for various activities.
C) Stimulus drives allow individuals to maintain high levels of arousal for as long as needed.
D) Individuals perform best at all tasks when arousal is very high.
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57
Which of the following is something that students can use to reduce test anxiety?
A) preparation
B) cognitive behavioural therapy
C) maintaining rigid thoughts
D) cramming the night before a test
A) preparation
B) cognitive behavioural therapy
C) maintaining rigid thoughts
D) cramming the night before a test
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58
What is the best antidote for test anxiety?
A) relaxation
B) preparation
C) rehearsal
D) focus
A) relaxation
B) preparation
C) rehearsal
D) focus
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59
Ted bought a computer program on the fundamentals of meditation and practises every day because he is highly motivated to become a world-class golfer. Ted's behaviour and goal reflect a high level of which of the following?
A) curiosity
B) sensation and perception
C) competence
D) achievement motivation
A) curiosity
B) sensation and perception
C) competence
D) achievement motivation
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60
What do we call the desire to meet internalized standards of excellence?
A) need for achievement
B) self-fulfilling prophecy
C) homeostasis
D) self-fulfillment theory
A) need for achievement
B) self-fulfilling prophecy
C) homeostasis
D) self-fulfillment theory
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61
Which of the following applies to individuals with a high need for achievement (nAch)?
A) They tend to choose occupations involving minimal risk and responsibility.
B) They like either long shots or sure things.
C) They strive for excellence with concern for material rewards.
D) They strive for excellence without concern for material rewards.
A) They tend to choose occupations involving minimal risk and responsibility.
B) They like either long shots or sure things.
C) They strive for excellence with concern for material rewards.
D) They strive for excellence without concern for material rewards.
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62
Which of the following do people who are high in the need for achievement generally prefer?
A) taking low risks
B) taking moderate risks
C) taking very high risks
D) taking no risks
A) taking low risks
B) taking moderate risks
C) taking very high risks
D) taking no risks
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63
Which of the following applies to individuals who are high in achievement motivation?
A) They have an external standard of excellence.
B) They avoid opportunities for constructive feedback.
C) They prefer situations with very high task levels of risk or difficulty.
D) They prefer situations involving moderate levels of risk or difficulty.
A) They have an external standard of excellence.
B) They avoid opportunities for constructive feedback.
C) They prefer situations with very high task levels of risk or difficulty.
D) They prefer situations involving moderate levels of risk or difficulty.
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64
Bloom's study of top performers found their success was due mainly to which of the following?
A) heredity and good timing
B) luck
C) natural talent
D) drive and determination
A) heredity and good timing
B) luck
C) natural talent
D) drive and determination
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65
According to Maslow, what is the order in which people satisfy their needs?
A) physiological, safety, esteem, love and belongingness, and self-actualization
B) self-actualization, esteem, love and belongingness, safety, and physiological
C) physiological, safety, love and belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization
D) physiological, love and belongingness, safety, esteem, and self-actualization
A) physiological, safety, esteem, love and belongingness, and self-actualization
B) self-actualization, esteem, love and belongingness, safety, and physiological
C) physiological, safety, love and belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization
D) physiological, love and belongingness, safety, esteem, and self-actualization
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66
Katherine is fearful of being alone, and therefore remains in a physically abusive relationship with her boyfriend. This best illustrates the impact of which of the following of Maslow's needs?
A) safety needs
B) esteem needs
C) sexual needs
D) belongingness needs
A) safety needs
B) esteem needs
C) sexual needs
D) belongingness needs
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67
According to Maslow, which of the following would need to be satisfied before a person could try to satisfy safety needs?
A) love and belonging needs
B) self-actualization
C) esteem needs
D) physiological needs
A) love and belonging needs
B) self-actualization
C) esteem needs
D) physiological needs
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68
According to Maslow, which of the following needs are only a small percentage of people able to begin achieving?
A) love and belongingness needs
B) self-actualization needs
C) esteem needs
D) safety or security needs
A) love and belongingness needs
B) self-actualization needs
C) esteem needs
D) safety or security needs
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69
Jason feels that he has all the material possessions and safety he needs in life. He is now determined to settle down and raise a family. According to Maslow, which of the following is the basis for Jason's motivation?
A) instinct needs
B) esteem needs
C) love and belongingness needs
D) self-actualization needs
A) instinct needs
B) esteem needs
C) love and belongingness needs
D) self-actualization needs
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70
Sharon is striving to become the best person possible, to gain a sense of unity with the universe, and to achieve a higher level of balance and harmony. According to humanistic psychologists, what is Sharon striving for?
A) unconditional positive regard
B) self-actualization
C) subjective reality
D) congruence
A) unconditional positive regard
B) self-actualization
C) subjective reality
D) congruence
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71
According to Maslow, what do meta-needs include?
A) reproduction
B) justice and truth
C) sleep
D) safety
A) reproduction
B) justice and truth
C) sleep
D) safety
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72
What do strong external rewards tend to undermine?
A) extrinsic motivation
B) intrinsic motivation
C) prepotent motivation
D) stimulus motivation
A) extrinsic motivation
B) intrinsic motivation
C) prepotent motivation
D) stimulus motivation
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Unlock Deck
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73
According to psychologists, which of the following leads people to engage in certain activities for no reward other than the pleasure of the activity?
A) extrinsic motivation
B) intrinsic motivation
C) achievement motivation
D) stimulus motivation
A) extrinsic motivation
B) intrinsic motivation
C) achievement motivation
D) stimulus motivation
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74
Sharon studies hard because she finds psychology very interesting. What is driving her?
A) her intrinsic motivation
B) her instinctive motivation
C) her extrinsic motivation
D) her stimulus motives
A) her intrinsic motivation
B) her instinctive motivation
C) her extrinsic motivation
D) her stimulus motives
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75
What causes Kimani to slow down only when he detects a police car?
A) his locus of control
B) his arousal level
C) his intrinsic motivation
D) his extrinsic motivation
A) his locus of control
B) his arousal level
C) his intrinsic motivation
D) his extrinsic motivation
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76
Which of the following applies to the use of extrinsic motivation?
A) When extrinsic motivation is stressed, people are more likely to solve tricky problems and come up with innovative ideas.
B) If extrinsic rewards are used with children they should be small and phased out as soon as possible.
C) If someone has no intrinsic interest in an activity to begin with, using extrinsic rewards will not work as motivators.
D) People who are extrinsically rewarded are likely to work harder and be more creative.
A) When extrinsic motivation is stressed, people are more likely to solve tricky problems and come up with innovative ideas.
B) If extrinsic rewards are used with children they should be small and phased out as soon as possible.
C) If someone has no intrinsic interest in an activity to begin with, using extrinsic rewards will not work as motivators.
D) People who are extrinsically rewarded are likely to work harder and be more creative.
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77
What are the three major elements of emotions?
A) stimulus, arousal, and release
B) physiological changes, behavioural expressions, and subjective experience
C) psychological changes, behavioural expressions, and objective experience
D) biological changes, learned expressions, and secondary expressions
A) stimulus, arousal, and release
B) physiological changes, behavioural expressions, and subjective experience
C) psychological changes, behavioural expressions, and objective experience
D) biological changes, learned expressions, and secondary expressions
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78
What enables the body to have a "fight or flight" reaction?
A) the parasympathetic nervous system
B) the sympathetic nervous system
C) the somatic nervous system
D) a physiological reaction
A) the parasympathetic nervous system
B) the sympathetic nervous system
C) the somatic nervous system
D) a physiological reaction
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79
In the autonomic nervous system, which part restores the body by conserving energy?
A) the limbic system
B) the parasympathetic nervous system
C) the sympathetic nervous system
D) the somatic nervous system
A) the limbic system
B) the parasympathetic nervous system
C) the sympathetic nervous system
D) the somatic nervous system
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80
Jeanne just had an unpleasant encounter with a stranger in a dark alley. As she walks away, her heart is pounding rapidly, she is perspiring, and her face has turned red. What is responsible for these physical changes?
A) the limbic system
B) the parasympathetic nervous system
C) the sympathetic nervous system
D) the thalamus
A) the limbic system
B) the parasympathetic nervous system
C) the sympathetic nervous system
D) the thalamus
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