Deck 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis

Question 1

What type of reproduction includes the binary fission used by single-celled bacteria to produce genetically identical daughter cells?

A) sexual reproduction
B) asexual reproduction
C) fertilization
D) condensation

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)

Answer 2

DNA polymerase

Question 3

What process occurs when cancer cells detach from tumors and spread to other parts of the body?

A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which feature is found in DNA?

A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C).
B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups.
C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds.
D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division.

Question 5

What term describes nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other?

A) semiconservative
B) complementary
C) conjoined
D) sister chromatids

Question 6

How do smoking and alcohol consumption affect cancer risk?

A) Smoking combined with alcohol consumption results in greater cancer risk.
B) Drinking alcohol results in greater cancer risk than smoking.
C) Smoking or drinking alcohol result in similar cancer risk.
D) Smoking results in twice the cancer risk of drinking.

Question 7

What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called?

A) alleles
B) centromeres
C) homologous chromosomes
D) sister chromatids

Question 8

Which substance is not a known carcinogen?

A) certain viruses
B) ultraviolet light
C) cigarette smoke
D) pet dander

Question 9

Which organs are often analyzed for cancer cells to determine whether the tumor has metastasized?

A) liver
B) lymph node
C) pancreas
D) ovary

Question 10

In a certain species of animal, 33% of the bases in its DNA are A. What percent of the bases are C?

A) 8.5%
B) 17%
C) 33%
D) 34%

Question 11

Which term describes a cancerous tumor?

A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) oncogenic

Question 12

What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?

Question 13

Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative?

A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides.
B) The DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand.
C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands.
D) DNA is divided into a top half and a bottom half before replicating.

Question 14

What is the region in the middle of a replicated chromosome that connects sister chromatids?

A) centriole
B) centromere
C) karyotype
D) chromatid

Question 15

In a bacterial species, 20% of the bases in its DNA are C. What percent of the bases are G?

A) 80%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 10%

Question 16

If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?

A) phosphate groups
B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
C) nitrogenous bases
D) DNA polymerase

Question 17

What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)

Question 18

Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

A) ACGGCTTAAG
B) AGGCCTAATG
C) CTTAAGCCGT
D) GAATTCGGCA

Question 19

What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?

A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) metastatic

Question 20

DNA polymerase moves along the length of the unwound helix, starting at the end of one strand and finishing at the end of the other strand. As shown in this figure, what is the result of this phenomenon?

A) One resulting double strand of DNA is composed of new DNA, and one is composed of parental DNA.
B) Free nucleotides are added to one strand of parental DNA but not to the other.
C) The DNA polymerase moves toward the unwound helix on one strand of DNA and away from it on the other strand.
D) DNA polymerase is destroyed as it binds nucleotides to form each daughter strand.

Question 21

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cytoplasm divide?

A) G1 phase
B) S phase
C) mitosis
D) cytokinesis

Question 22

Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase?

A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.

Question 23

What is the correct order of events in mitosis?

A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Question 24

What gene encodes a protein that will inhibit cell division?

A) angiogenesis inhibitor
B) growth factor
C) oncogene
D) tumor-suppressor gene

Question 25

What is the correct order of events in the cell cycle?

A) G₁, G₂, S, mitosis, cytokinesis
B) G₁, S, G₂, mitosis, cytokinesis
C) S, G₁, G₂, cytokinesis, mitosis
D) S, G₁, G₂, mitosis, cytokinesis

Question 26

Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell?

A) meiosis in animals
B) meiosis in plants
C) mitosis in animals
D) meiosis in bacteria

Question 27

In which phase of the cell cycle are cells most often found?

A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase

Question 28

What would result if a cell underwent mitosis but did not complete cytokinesis?

A) one cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes
B) one cell with two nuclei
C) two daughter cells with no nucleus
D) two daughter cells with too few chromosomes

Question 29

During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down?

A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) telophase

Question 30

During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?

A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase

Question 31

During which process would a cell plate form?

A) cytokinesis in an animal cell
B) cytokinesis in a plant cell
C) mitosis in an animal cell
D) mitosis in a plant cell

Question 32

During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell?

A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase

Question 33

Which carbohydrate forms the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells?

A) cellulose
B) sucrose
C) glucose
D) lactose

Question 34

According to the diagram, what structures are connected to the centrioles by the microtubules during mitosis?

A) the nuclear envelope
B) uncondensed DNA
C) cytoplasm
D) centromeres

Question 35

During the metaphase checkpoint, what information is being checked by the cell?

A) if it is large enough to divide
B) if its DNA has been replicated correctly
C) if its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules
D) if there are sufficient nutrients available

Question 36

What is the relationship between proto-oncogenes and oncogenes?

A) Oncogenes may develop into cancer-causing proto-oncogenes as a result of synergism.
B) Oncogenes prevent proto-oncogenes from encoding proteins for cell division.
C) Proto-oncogenes may develop into cancer-causing oncogenes as a result of mutations.
D) Proto-oncogenes allow oncogenes to encode proteins that prevent cell division.

Question 37

Which phase occurs during mitosis?

A) first gap phase
B) metaphase
C) second gap phase
D) S phase

Question 38

Which is a common feature of cancer cells?

A) anchorage dependence
B) contact inhibition
C) metastasis
D) controlled division

Question 39

During which phase of the cell cycle do most organelles duplicate?

A) prophase of mitosis
B) telophase of mitosis
C) the S phase of interphase
D) the G1 phase of interphase

Question 40

Which cells would spend the most time in interphase?

A) skin cells on the hands
B) epithelial cells lining the intestine
C) nerve cells in the brain
D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth

Question 41

During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate?

A) meiosis I
B) meiosis II
C) interphase
D) cytokinesis

Question 42

Which statement describes human sperm or egg cells?

A) They are produced by the process of mitosis.
B) They have one copy of each chromosome.
C) They have two copies of each chromosome.
D) They are genetically identical to all gametes made by a person.

Question 43

Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 44

What is the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed for cancerous cells?

Question 45

During which meiotic phase does crossing over occur?

A) anaphase I of meiosis I
B) anaphase II of meiosis II
C) prophase I of meiosis I
D) prophase II of meiosis II

Question 46

When do sister chromatids separate?

A) meiosis I and meiosis II
B) meiosis I and mitosis
C) mitosis and cytokinesis
D) meiosis II and mitosis

Question 47

What observations would be made by a scientist viewing cancer cells under a microscope?

A) orderly rows of cells
B) cells that are much smaller than normal cells
C) large growths containing fluid
D) disorganized cells

Question 48

What are the members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes?

A) alleles
B) diploids
C) gametes
D) homologous chromosomes

Question 49

How does radiation therapy work on cancer cells?

A) Radiation limits microtubule formation, affecting chromosome alignment during mitosis.
B) Radiation causes tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
C) Radiation damages DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
D) Radiation makes cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.

Question 50

What is meant by the "multiple hit" model of cancer?

A) Most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations.
B) Most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously.
C) Multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer.
D) A person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer.

Question 51

What type of normal human cell contains 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes?

A) egg cell
B) somatic cell of a female
C) somatic cell of a male
D) sperm cell

Question 52

What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?

Question 53

What are genes that are located on the same chromosome and move together to the same gamete?

A) alleles
B) diploid genes
C) homologous genes
D) linked genes

Question 54

Which feature of cancer cells is targeted by most forms of chemotherapy?

A) anchorage independence
B) cell division
C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues
D) metastasis

Question 55

What type of normal human cell contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome?

A) egg cell
B) somatic cell of a female
C) somatic cell of a male
D) sperm cell

Question 56

How does crossing over increase genetic diversity?

A) Crossing over increases the different combinations of genes present in a gamete.
B) Crossing over allows specific genes to travel together on one chromosome.
C) Crossing over increases the incidence of mutations in genes.
D) Crossing over prevents the inheritance of harmful mutations.

Question 57

What are the different versions of the same gene?

A) alleles
B) diploids
C) homologous chromosomes
D) sister chromatids

Question 58

What are the places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met?