Deck 3: Federalism

Question 1

The United Nations is an example of a unitary government.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

A confederal system features strong states that can sometimes veto national government decisions.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Because of the U.S. Constitution's "privileges and immunities clause," a state such as North Carolina can deny certain "privileges" by refusing to recognize same-sex marriages that occur legally in the state of Massachusetts.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Which best defines the situation of local governments in the American federal system?

A) They are created by the national government.
B) They are created by state governments.
C) They are formed by popular petition.
D) They are created by the national and state governments working together.
E) They do not exist in a legal sense and only play a ceremonial role.

Question 5

Which of the following terms describes power exercised by federal, state, and local governments who share responsibilities for particular policy areas, such as transportation?

A) concurrent powers
B) reserved powers
C) implied powers
D) necessary and proper powers
E) cooperative powers

Question 6

In the wake of the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks on the United States, many Republicans, including President George W. Bush, were supportive of strong action by the national government to protect homeland security.

Question 7

In 2012 the Supreme Court found that the Affordable Care Act was entirely constitutional.

Question 8

The 1965 Voting Rights Act, where the federal government sent marshals to the South to make sure African Americans were allowed to vote, is a good example of dual federalism.

Question 9

The Supreme Court found that which component of the Affordable Care Act was unconstitutional?

A) the requirement that insurers provide health insurance
B) the requirement that individuals buy health insurance
C) the expansion of Medicaid
D) the rationing of medical care
E) the creation of a new medical review board

Question 10

An example of the U.S. Constitution's "full faith and credit clause" is that a person with a driver's license from the state of New York does not need to get a separate Pennsylvania driver's license to drive a car through the state of Pennsylvania.

Question 11

Policy diversity and innovation is an argument in favor of a stronger role for the states.

Question 12

President Richard Nixon's New Federalism programs played an important role in the expansion of national power in policy areas such as civil rights, medical care, and housing.

Question 13

Debates over how power is divided between the national and state governments have divided Supreme Court justices since the nation's founding because of various different interpretations of the Tenth Amendment and the powers granted to Congress under the "necessary and proper" clause of the U.S. Constitution.

Question 14

A form of government that divides sovereign power across at least two political units is called:

A) a separation of powers system.
B) a confederal government.
C) federalism.
D) a unitary government.
E) a constitutional democracy.

Question 15

The debate over medical marijuana is a good example of the principle that the states' rights position is usually the same as the conservative position on an issue.

Question 16

Competition between states is often seen negatively because it allows smaller states to use their numerical advantage in the House of Representatives to get what they want.

Question 17

When the national government gives the states money to entice them to change state laws to match national goals or policies established by Congress, such as what happened with the Affordable Care Act and the expansion of Medicaid, it is an example of what?

A) the federal government exercising the national supremacy clause
B) dual federalism
C) the federal government acting through its implied powers in the U.S. Constitution
D) coercive federalism
E) police powers

Question 18

In federal systems, power is centralized at the federal or national level.

Question 19

The "rights revolution" and Great Society programs were made possible because of the doctrine of interposition.

Question 20

A principal reason that the federal government's importance in regulating commerce increased in the twentieth century was that economic activity had become more national, making the distinction between interstate and intrastate commerce more difficult to sustain.

Question 21

Which aspect of the Constitution points toward a nation-centered perspective?

A) use of the electoral college
B) provisions for national security
C) delegated powers clauses
D) the Tenth Amendment
E) There are no aspects of the Constitution that point toward a nation-centered perspective.

Question 22

Which aspect of the Constitution points toward a state-centered perspective?

A) the Eleventh Amendment
B) provisions for national security
C) the Preamble
D) the necessary and proper clause
E) There are no aspects of the Constitution that point toward a state-centered perspective.

Question 23

The privileges and immunities clause was originally meant to promote:

A) equality for all citizens under the law.
B) states' rights.
C) individual civil liberties.
D) commerce and travel between states.
E) privileges and immunities for the states from being sued by the federal government.

Question 24

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) is an important Supreme Court ruling because:

A) it limited state government power by declaring that Maryland could not tax a
Federal bank.
B) it strengthened state government power by declaring that Maryland could tax a
Federal bank under the doctrine of dual sovereignty.
C) it expanded the power of the national government by declaring that federal taxes on state banks were constitutional.
D) it expanded state government power by declaring that state laws could override the commerce clause.
E) it signified the end of the debate surrounding the nullification doctrine.

Question 25

Concurrent powers are those that:

A) are explicitly granted to the national government by the Constitution.
B) the Constitution implies are held by the national government.
C) are shared by state and national governments.
D) apply to the relationship between state and local governments.
E) apply to a situation in which one political party controls the legislative branch and a different political party controls the executive branch.

Question 26

The Federalists, led by George Washington, John Adams, and Alexander Hamilton, favored a(n) ________ national government, while the Democratic-Republicans, led by Thomas Jefferson and James Madison, favored ________ power.

A) weak; national
B) strong; state
C) divided; concurrent
D) democratic; federal
E) elitist; unitary

Question 27

A confederal system of government has a ________ central government. A unitary system has a ________ central government.

A) strong; weak
B) weak; strong
C) strong; strong
D) weak; weak
E) bicameral; unicameral

Question 28

The power of local governments depends on charters granted to them by:

A) the Constitution.
B) the national government.
C) their citizens.
D) the state governments.
E) common law and the backing of the federal court system.

Question 29

Intergovernmental organizations exist primarily to:

A) assist member nations with loans through the World Bank and International
Monetary Fund.
B) help poor nations combat poverty.
C) monitor elections and advance democracy around the world.
D) advance policies that would lead to full employment throughout the world.
E) assist member nations seeking to coordinate their policies.

Question 30

Under the U.S. system of federalism, who or what is responsible for the conduct of foreign policy and defense?

A) the national government
B) the state governments
C) the local governments
D) international organizations such as the United Nations and NATO
E) The U.S. Constitution never answers this question.

Question 31

Which system is most common among democracies in the world?

A) federal system
B) confederal system
C) cooperative system
D) unitary system
E) direct democratic system

Question 32

Which amendment says that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people"?

A) First
B) Fifth
C) Tenth
D) Eleventh
E) Seventeenth

Question 33

Why are local governments still considered important to citizens?

A) They provide services such as police and fire departments.
B) They control immigration policy.
C) They are exclusively responsible for all transportation policy.
D) They are less likely to be corrupt than state or national government officials.
E) They provide mail delivery.

Question 34

Why is the supremacy clause important?

A) It gives the U.S. Congress the power to regulate commerce.
B) It resolves conflicts between national and state laws.
C) It makes clear that each state's laws are to be honored by the other states.
D) It stipulates that if the national government passes an unconstitutional law, the people of the states are "supreme" and through their state legislatures can declare the law void.
E) It provides the U.S. Congress with the power to dissolve or to take control of local governments that are in financial distress.

Question 35

The ________ clause is vague but gives the national government a very broad grant of power to carry out its responsibilities.

A) supremacy
B) necessary and proper
C) enumerated powers
D) full faith and credit
E) affirmation

Question 36

One advantage of decentralized power in a federal system is that it:

A) provides the legislative branch with more power than the executive branch.
B) makes legislation easier to pass.
C) is a natural check on the power of the federal government.
D) it leads to more coherent and unified ethnic and national identities.
E) leads to smaller budget deficits and greater economic growth.

Question 37

When California passed a law in 1992 that limited the cash welfare benefit to new residents to the same level of benefits they had been receiving in the state from which they moved, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the law:

A) violated the full faith and credit clause.
B) violated the privileges and immunities clause.
C) violated the supremacy clause.
D) violated the Tenth Amendment.
E) violated the Fourteenth Amendment.

Question 38

What is a disadvantage of a unitary system?

A) Unitary systems are inefficient and tend to suffer from weak central leadership.
B) There is no competition between different political units in unitary systems, which can stifle policy development.
C) Unitary systems are autocratic, which often leads to rampant government corruption.
D) Unitary systems allow multiple parties to be included on the ballot, which can
Confuse voters.
E) Unitary systems have historically been plagued by weak national economies
And high unemployment.

Question 39

Why is the necessary and proper clause often a source of controversy and political disagreement?

A) Some argue that it grants too much power to the Supreme Court by giving it the power to declare state laws unconstitutional.
B) Some argue that the executive branch has abused its power through an overly broad interpretation of the necessary and proper clause.
C) Some argue that the U.S. Congress has abused its power through an overly broad interpretation of the necessary and proper clause.
D) Some argue that it makes the military too powerful without proper checks from civilian government.
E) Some argue that it gives too much power to the state governments at the expense of the national government.

Question 40

When Congress passed the Defense of Marriage Act in 1996, it was trying to:

A) limit the interpretation of the full faith and credit clause.
B) ensure that states respected same-sex marriages.
C) force states not to recognize divorces in other states.
D) exercise its powers under the supremacy clause.
E) amend the U.S. Constitution.

Question 41

Why is Barron v. Baltimore important?

A) It sided with the national government over state government, giving added power to the supremacy clause.
B) It ruled that Congress did not have the authority to prohibit slavery in any state.
C) It helped begin the "rights revolution."
D) It helped establish dual federalism as a guiding judicial principle to settle questions concerning state and national power.
E) The majority ruling stated that the Tenth Amendment "does not alter the distribution of power between the national and state governments."

Question 42

The Dred Scott case ruled that:

A) the Missouri Compromise deprived slave owners of property without due process of law.
B) previous Court rulings that relied on the principle of dual federalism were incorrect because this was not what the Founders envisioned when drafting the Constitution.
C) federal law was supreme over state law.
D) the Bill of Rights did not apply to the states.
E) the Missouri Compromise was constitutional and had to be enforced.

Question 43

Cooperative federalism emerged during:

A) the 1890s.
B) the 1930s.
C) the 1960s.
D) the 1970s.
E) the 1990s.

Question 44

The term "states' rights" refers to:

A) the right of the states to determine their own laws without interference from the federal government.
B) the right of any state to secede from the Union.
C) the powers given to states by their constitutions.
D) the right of any state to sue the federal government in court.
E) the principle that state powers are superior to and have a higher priority than individual rights.

Question 45

________ commerce refers to economic activity between states that ________ be regulated by the federal government.

A) Intrastate; can
B) Interstate; can
C) Interstate; cannot
D) Fiscal; cannot
E) Coercive; can

Question 46

The concept of dual federalism envisions what relationship between the federal and state governments?

A) Each of them has some distinct authority but they cooperate in most areas.
B) Each has distinct areas of authority with very little overlap.
C) The only way in which the national government influences the states is by providing them with funds.
D) Federal mandates matter only when the states agree to them.
E) This complicated, vague concept can take on a "dual" meaning that is adaptable to changing times and circumstances.

Question 47

The commerce clause specifically gives:

A) state governments the power to raise funds by taxing goods and services.
B) state governments the power to regulate commerce.
C) Congress the power to set interest rates.
D) Congress the power to run the postal service.
E) Congress the power to regulate economic exchange between the states.

Question 48

Which court case strengthened Congress by providing for a broad interpretation of the commerce clause?

A) Gibbons v. Ogden
B) Barron v. Baltimore
C) Roe v. Wade
D) Mayor of City of New York v. Miln
E) Maryland v. United States

Question 49

Which of the following explains why cooperative federalism emerged in the United States?

A) Supreme Court decisions that broadly interpreted the commerce clause
B) Supreme Court decisions that limited the scope of the commerce clause
C) public support and demand for cooperative federalism during the "rights revolution"
D) the leadership and policies of President Richard Nixon
E) the end of the Civil War

Question 50

The theory of dual federalism is most consistent with the concept of:

A) marble cake federalism.
B) layer cake federalism.
C) picket fence federalism.
D) coercive federalism.
E) fiscal federalism.

Question 51

The principal impact of McCulloch v. Maryland was:

A) its decision to interpret the commerce clause broadly, thus giving the national government the ability to become involved in many more policy areas.
B) its decision to let states interfere in the federal government's business by taxing it.
C) its ruling that the national government's power to print money did not imply that it could open a bank for regulating the economy.
D) its expansive interpretation of implied powers and the supremacy clause in favor of the national government.
E) its decision to allow states to nullify federal laws that conflicted with their state constitutions.

Question 52

Imagine a situation in which the national and state governments work closely together to solve a problem. They share resources and knowledge until the issue is resolved. This is most closely aligned with which type of federalism?

A) dual
B) competitive
C) cooperative
D) coercive
E) fiscal

Question 53

The picket fence metaphor is an apt description of current American federalism because:

A) different policy areas are "fenced" off from each other by Congressional action and court rulings.
B) it takes money to make policy, just like it does to build a fence.
C) policy makers mainly interact with others in the same policy area, regardless of whether they are federal or state employees.
D) chief executives (mayors, governors, and the president) have few powers over federalism.
E) the state and federal governments have clear boundaries, much like two fences on separate properties.

Question 54

Following the Civil War, why were the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments added to the Constitution?

A) to guarantee African Americans seats in Congress
B) to move the nation toward a unitary government
C) to ensure that the Union's views on states' rights were the law of the land
D) to ensure that northern states would dominate the national government
E) to protect northern industry and financial interests

Question 55

Which of the following is a doctrine that stipulates that if the national government passes an unconstitutional law, the people of the states can declare the law void?

A) doctrine of states' rights
B) doctrine of coercive federalism
C) doctrine of interposition
D) doctrine of dual federalism
E) devolution

Question 56

Which early court case reinforced the power of the supremacy clause?

A) Barron v. Baltimore
B) Gibbons v. Ogden
C) McCulloch v. Maryland
D) Chisholm v. Georgia
E) Dred Scott v. Sandford

Question 57

The Supreme Court's endorsement of laissez-faire capitalism in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries was significant because:

A) it gave Congress added powers to regulate private affairs.
B) it prevented Congress from regulating any economic activity that occurred within a state.
C) it gave additional freedom to Congress to act under the commerce clause.
D) it strengthened the full faith and credit clause of the Constitution.
E) it signified the beginning of what became known as the "New Federalism Era."

Question 58

Following the Civil War, the Constitution was amended to ensure that states could not deny any citizen:

A) the right to vote.
B) the right to run as a candidate for public office.
C) due process or equal protection of the laws.
D) the right to earn a guaranteed minimum wage established by the federal government.
E) the right to serve in the armed forces.

Question 59

The doctrine of interposition was first used:

A) by the Supreme Court in McCulloch v. Maryland.
B) in response to the Alien and Sedition Acts.
C) by state governors opposed to federal civil rights legislation that became law in the 1950s and 1960s.
D) by Lyndon Johnson as part of his Great Society programs.
E) by Richard Nixon as part of his New Federalism initiatives.

Question 60

The distinction between intrastate and interstate commerce became blurred by the Supreme Court because of:

A) backlash from passage of the Sherman Antitrust Act.
B) Congress's failure to take action during the Great Depression.
C) conflict stemming from Jim Crow.
D) the politics of the New Deal.
E) the politics of President Nixon's New Federalism.

Question 61

The term "fiscal federalism" refers to:

A) grants of money from national to state governments.
B) grants of money from state to national governments.
C) taxes by the states on national institutions.
D) taxes by the national government on state institutions.
E) situations in which the federal government spends more money than it takes in from taxes on the states.

Question 62

What element of the Constitution affirms state sovereignty?

A) the elastic clause
B) the origination clause
C) the supremacy clause
D) the Tenth Amendment
E) the Thirteenth Amendment

Question 63

Since the 1990s, the Supreme Court's principal role has been to:

A) continue expanding federal power.
B) protect state power.
C) expand application of the Fourteenth Amendment to the states.
D) expand civil rights.
E) limit the power of the president and the executive branch.

Question 64

Which of the following describes coercive federalism?

A) The national government shares decision-making power with the state governments, but the states agree to accept less money.
B) The national government issues federal funds to state governments to encourage states to meet certain policy requirements.
C) The national government uses regulations and mandates to make state governments change their policies.
D) The national government restricts the powers of state governments to tax and to
Spend money.
E) The national government becomes a unitary system.

Question 65

Which of the following is an example of fiscal federalism?

A) The national government threatens to tax state governments to steer them toward accepting a desired federal policy.
B) The national government issues federal funds to state governments to encourage states to meet certain policy requirements.
C) The national government requires states to increase taxes to meet federal mandates.
D) The national government lends money to the states on a temporary basis.
E) The national government runs a deficit by spending more money than it takes in from taxpayers.

Question 66

The term "New Federalism" refers to:

A) increasing state discretion in spending by using block grants.
B) decreasing state power by expanding the federal government's regulation of commerce.
C) increasing state discretion in spending through increased coercive federalism.
D) increasing federal spending to wage a local "war on poverty."
E) an effort in the 1970s and 1980s to eliminate all federal grants.

Question 67

Which of the following is an advantage of giving states flexibility in making policy instead of the federal government imposing policy?

A) State-elected officials are more civil and reasonable toward one another than are members of the U.S. Congress.
B) It allows states to compete for business, meaning they will have stronger regulation.
C) It allows for policy experimentation, providing new ideas about how to solve problems.
D) State officials tend to care more about the average person.
E) The process is less susceptible to corruption.

Question 68

Which of the following terms describes a situation in which the national government provides funds to state governments with no strings attached on how that money is spent?

A) fiscal federalism
B) a categorical grant
C) coercive federalism
D) general revenue sharing
E) devolution

Question 69

President Reagan favored block grants over categorical grants because:

A) block grants give states more power.
B) block grants allow for more federal control.
C) he saw categorical grants as giving states too much room for creativity.
D) he believed it would help control state governments' deficit spending.
E) he knew this position would be popular with congressional Democrats.

Question 70

After the 1980s, the Republican view on federal grants was to:

A) use categorical grants to prevent local government corruption.
B) use block grants to give local politicians more control over how money was spent.
C) avoid issuing all grants so that more money could be spent on the military and defense.
D) avoid issuing all grants to maintain states' rights and sovereignty.
E) use block grants to balance the federal budget.

Question 71

Which of the following statements would fall under the principle of coercive federalism?

A) The national government threatens state governments with military might.
B) The national government uses mandates or regulations without giving states the money to execute and enforce the mandates or regulations.
C) The national government passes new constitutional amendments limiting state power.
D) The national government threatens to tax residents at a higher rate in states unwilling to cooperate with the goals and policies of the national government.
E) The national government forces the states to change policies through an act of Congress.

Question 72

Which of the following programs provided states with significant flexibility in spending federal welfare dollars?

A) Great Society programs
B) Temporary Assistance to Needy Families
C) Unfunded Mandate Reform Act
D) Social Security Act
E) Homestead Act

Question 73

On issues like climate change, health care, immigration, gay marriage, and stem-cell research states have:

A) lagged behind the federal government in making changes.
B) often taken the lead on trying to address the issues.
C) resisted efforts by the national government to deal with the issues.
D) ignored calls to address the issues.
E) done as the federal government asked in handling the issues.

Question 74

According to the text, Americans are more likely to:

A) trust their local and state governments over the federal government.
B) trust the federal government over their local and state governments.
C) fear executive power when a Republican is president.
D) support expanded executive power when a Republican is president.
E) expect the states to enact legislation supporting progressive causes.

Question 75

Because the Constitution only sets broad boundaries for state and federal powers, the ________ is very important in resolving disputes over powers in specific instances.

A) Congress
B) Tenth Amendment
C) Supreme Court
D) federal government
E) president

Question 76

Which of the following reinforced the role of the national government beginning in the late 1960s?

A) the devolution revolution
B) Nixon's New Federalism
C) the "rights revolution"
D) the Court's ruling in National Labor Relations Board v. Jones & Laughlin Steel Corporation
E) the passage of the Sherman Antitrust Act

Question 77

Block grants and general revenue sharing are most closely aligned with what type of federalism?

A) coercive
B) competitive
C) dual
D) cooperative
E) layer cake

Question 78

Advocates of ________ federalism prefer giving money to the states through ________.

A) dual; block grants
B) cooperative; block grants
C) dual; categorical grants
D) cooperative; categorical grants
E) coercive; government bonds

Question 79

Which political party prefers giving the states flexibility in spending federal money?

A) Republican Party
B) Democratic Party
C) Both the Republican Party and the Democratic Party equally
D) Neither the Republican Party nor the Democratic Party
E) Whig Party

Question 80

Unfunded mandates:

A) are a nullification of state law.
B) are an imposition of state priorities on the national government.
C) are regulations that require state action but provide no money.
D) devolve power from the federal government back to the states.
E) were recently declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.