Deck 16: Dentition Assessment

Question 1

What is the eruption period for the maxillary first permanent premolar?

A) 7 to 8 years
B) 8 to 9 years
C) 10 to 11 years
D) 12 to 13 years

Answer 1

10 to 11 years

Question 2

Which of the following minerals are abundant in the saliva for remineralizing early carious lesions?

A) Calcium and phosphorus
B) Calcium and potassium
C) Phosphorus and potassium
D) Phosphorus and iron

Answer 2

Calcium and phosphorus

Question 3

Which of the following permanent teeth would you expect to be erupted in the average 9- to 10-year-old?
1) Maxillary lateral incisor
2) Maxillary central incisor
3) Mandibular canine
4) Maxillary canine
5) Mandibular second molar

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 3, 4, 5

Answer 3

1, 2, 3

Question 4

In normal occlusion, the maxillary incisors vertically overlap the mandibular incisors. This vertical overlap is known as the "overjet."

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 5

Which tooth is distal to the primary maxillary second molar in a 7-year-old?

A) Maxillary first premolar
B) Maxillary second premolar
C) Maxillary first molar
D) Maxillary second molar

Question 6

Which of the following descriptions refers to a Class I molar relationship?

A) Buccal groove of mandibular first permanent molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar.
B) Buccal groove of mandibular first permanent molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary second permanent molar.
C) Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first permanent molar occludes with buccal groove of mandibular first permanent molar.
D) Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first permanent molar occludes with buccal groove of mandibular second permanent molar.

Question 7

What is the critical pH for enamel dissolution?

A) 6.2 to 7.0
B) 4.5 to 6.7
C) 4.5 to 5.5
D) 5.7 to 6.0

Question 8

When measuring for furcation involvement, which of the following classes is described by the probe passing completely through the furcation, but the furcation is not clinically visible?

A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV

Question 9

In normal occlusion, the maxillary incisors are lingual to the mandibular incisors. The horizontal distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is known as the overbite.

A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true of Class II mobility?

A) Barely discernible movement
B) Combined faciolingual movement totaling 2 mm, and tooth depressible in the socket
C) Combined faciolingual movement totaling between 2 and 3 mm
D) Combined faciolingual movement totaling 3 mm or more and/or tooth is depressible in the socket

Question 11

Which bite situation can be produced from thumbsucking?

A) End to end
B) Crossbite
C) Open bite
D) Overbite

Question 12

What is the eruption period for the mandibular permanent canine?

A) 9 to 10 years
B) 11 to 12 years
C) 10 to 12 years
D) 11 to 13 years

Question 13

What term is used to describe the occlusion when there is a deviation in the ideal relationship of the maxillary and mandibular teeth when they are in centric occlusion?

A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Occlusion
D) Malocclusion

Question 14

According to Angle's classification, how would you classify the following occlusion in which the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar by at least the width of a premolar and the maxillary central incisors retrude?

A) Class I
B) Class II, division 1
C) Class II, division 2
D) Class III

Question 15

Demineralization of the enamel can occur when there is a rapid drop in plaque pH after consumption of sugar containing foods. How long does it take for the pH of the saliva to return to normal?

A) 20 to 30 minutes
B) 30 to 40 minutes
C) 1 to 2 hours
D) 2 to 3 hours

Question 16

What facial profile is associated when the maxillary central incisors are upright or retruded, and lateral incisors are tipped labially?

A) Prognathic
B) Retrognathic
C) Retrognathic with lip incompetence
D) Mesognathic

Question 17

Caries may be considered a two stage process. Which two bacteria are implicated in this process?

A) Lactobacillus initiates a lesion, while Streptococcus mutans progresses a lesion.
B) Streptococcus mutans initiates a lesion, while Actinomyces progresses a lesion.
C) Lactobacillus initiates a lesion, while Actinomyces progresses a lesion.
D) Streptococcus mutans initiates a lesion, while Lactobacillus progresses a lesion.

Question 18

How is the term crossbite defined?

A) Localized absence of occlusion
B) Abnormal buccolingual relationship of teeth
C) Torsiversion is present
D) Excessive vertical overlap of the incisors

Question 19

Abrasion is the wearing of tooth by what mechanism?

A) By dissolution of organic matrix
B) By tooth to tooth contact
C) By forces other than mastication
D) By wearing of tooth by a chemical process

Question 20

How many teeth should be visible in the mouth of a 3-year-old?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 20
D) 28

Question 21

All of the following are risk factors for the development of early childhood caries except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Siblings or parents have caries
B) Visible biofilm on maxillary incisors
C) From low-income family
D) Parents did not graduate from high school

Question 22

Which of the following describes the term bruxism?

A) Abnormal vertical spaces between mandibular and maxillary teeth
B) Occurs when the teeth occlude for a long time without giving the mandible a rest
C) Is the forceful grinding of the teeth together, often making an audible noise
D) Causes extreme overjet of the maxillary incisors, and stretched lips

Question 23

All of the following are symptoms of pulpal damage except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Pain when biting down
B) Sensitivity with hot or cold beverages
C) Pain when chewing
D) Sensitivity to sweet or citrus foods

Question 24

Which of the following is characteristic of rampant caries?

A) Sudden, rapid destruction of many teeth
B) Slow progressive decay process
C) Progress of decay process has halted
D) New decay around or under a restoration

Question 25

All of the following are primary modifying factors in the process of tooth decay except one. Which is the one exception?

A) Lifestyle
B) Saliva flow
C) Biofilm pH
D) Oral hygiene

Question 26

Which of the following teeth is the least frequently absent?

A) First permanent molar
B) Third permanent molar
C) Maxillary lateral incisors
D) Mandibular premolars

Question 27

Which term is used when there is an absence of one or more teeth?

A) Hyperdontia
B) Mesiodens
C) Hypodontia
D) Microdontia

Question 28

How is the term dilaceration defined?

A) Is a result of a disturbance of the ameloblasts during matrix formation
B) A large tooth resulting from the splitting of a single tooth germ
C) Abnormal distortion of a crown or root caused by trauma during formation
D) Tooth within a tooth, caused by invagination of the enamel during formation

Question 29

Which of the following describes the term mulberry molars?

A) Mottled mulberry-shaped molars associated with congenital syphilis
B) Nodular enamel growths on the cusp surfaces of permanent molars
C) Partial or total malformation of enamel with normal pulp and dentin
D) A well-delineated cusp found on lingual surfaces of posterior teeth

Question 30

There are several ways clients may lose tooth structure. Which of the following describes the term abfraction?

A) Loss due to chemical agents from acid reflux disease
B) Loss as a result of tooth-to-tooth wear through bruxism
C) Loss caused by a foreign substance such as traumatic toothbrushing
D) Loss as a result of cervical stress at the cementoenamel junction