Deck 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Deck 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
1
Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach)is characterized by
A) absent P waves.
B) lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
C) constant PR interval and dropped QRS complexes.
D) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes.
A) absent P waves.
B) lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
C) constant PR interval and dropped QRS complexes.
D) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes.
lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
2
Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
Class I
3
In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?
A) Asymptomatic sinus bradycardia at a heart rate of 50 beats/min
B) Fever-induced tachycardia at 122 beats/min
C) Premature atrial complexes occurring every 20 seconds
D) Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/min
A) Asymptomatic sinus bradycardia at a heart rate of 50 beats/min
B) Fever-induced tachycardia at 122 beats/min
C) Premature atrial complexes occurring every 20 seconds
D) Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/min
Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/min
4
After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema.His edema is most likely a consequence of
A) arterial obstruction.
B) isolated left-sided heart failure.
C) right-sided heart failure.
D) peripheral vascular disease.
A) arterial obstruction.
B) isolated left-sided heart failure.
C) right-sided heart failure.
D) peripheral vascular disease.
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5
The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of
A) triggered activity.
B) enhanced automaticity.
C) defective gap junctions.
D) reentry mechanisms.
A) triggered activity.
B) enhanced automaticity.
C) defective gap junctions.
D) reentry mechanisms.
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6
The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is
A) afterload reduction.
B) b-antagonist agents.
C) preload reduction.
D) digitalis.
A) afterload reduction.
B) b-antagonist agents.
C) preload reduction.
D) digitalis.
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7
An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second)QRS complex is characteristic of
A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
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8
A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is
A) serum sodium.
B) albumin level.
C) serum potassium.
D) serum calcium.
A) serum sodium.
B) albumin level.
C) serum potassium.
D) serum calcium.
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9
Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?
A) Second-degree AV block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Junctional escape
D) Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
A) Second-degree AV block
B) Sinus bradycardia
C) Junctional escape
D) Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
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10
A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing
A) orthopnea.
B) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
A) orthopnea.
B) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
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11
The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is
A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
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12
First-degree heart block is characterized by
A) prolonged PR interval.
B) absent P waves.
C) widened QRS complex.
D) variable PR interval.
A) prolonged PR interval.
B) absent P waves.
C) widened QRS complex.
D) variable PR interval.
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13
Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
A) pulmonary congestion.
B) decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) peripheral edema.
A) pulmonary congestion.
B) decreased systemic vascular resistance.
C) jugular vein distention.
D) peripheral edema.
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14
Cor pulmonale refers to
A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
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15
Lusitropic impairment refers to
A) poor contractile force.
B) impaired diastolic relaxation.
C) altered action potential conduction rate.
D) altered automaticity.
A) poor contractile force.
B) impaired diastolic relaxation.
C) altered action potential conduction rate.
D) altered automaticity.
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16
A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety.The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum.This patient is most likely experiencing
A) right-sided heart failure.
B) cardiomyopathy.
C) a medication reaction.
D) acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
A) right-sided heart failure.
B) cardiomyopathy.
C) a medication reaction.
D) acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
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17
A patient with pure left-sided heart failure is likely to exhibit
A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
A) jugular vein distention.
B) pulmonary congestion with dyspnea.
C) peripheral edema.
D) hepatomegaly.
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18
Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they
A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
A) increase cardiac output.
B) reduce cardiac output.
C) enhance sodium absorption.
D) reduce blood flow to the kidneys.
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19
Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to
A) aortic stenosis.
B) aortic regurgitation.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) pulmonary stenosis.
A) aortic stenosis.
B) aortic regurgitation.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) pulmonary stenosis.
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20
Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells.
A) aldosterone
B) norepinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin
A) aldosterone
B) norepinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin
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21
A patient has heart failure with a normal ejection fraction.Which findings are most likely found in this patient?
A) High cardiac output
B) Pulmonary congestion
C) Edema
D) Ejection fraction greater than 50%
E) Ejection fraction less than 45%
A) High cardiac output
B) Pulmonary congestion
C) Edema
D) Ejection fraction greater than 50%
E) Ejection fraction less than 45%
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22
Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
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23
Right-sided heart failure is usually a consequence of
A) elevated right ventricular afterload.
B) right ventricular infarction.
C) tricuspid valve defects.
D) congenital anomalies.
A) elevated right ventricular afterload.
B) right ventricular infarction.
C) tricuspid valve defects.
D) congenital anomalies.
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24
A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is deemed to be in sinus arrest.The patient's sinus arrest may be a result of
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
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25
First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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26
The most common causes of heart failure are
A) myocardial ischemia.
B) hypertension.
C) dilated cardiomyopathy.
D) high-fat diet.
E) urinary retention.
A) myocardial ischemia.
B) hypertension.
C) dilated cardiomyopathy.
D) high-fat diet.
E) urinary retention.
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27
Dysrhythmias are significant since they
A) are an indicator of life span.
B) can indicate an underlying disorder.
C) can impair venous return.
D) increase the severity of heart murmurs.
E) can impair cardiac output.
A) are an indicator of life span.
B) can indicate an underlying disorder.
C) can impair venous return.
D) increase the severity of heart murmurs.
E) can impair cardiac output.
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28
A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction.This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)
A) elderly woman without a previous history of MI.
B) middle-aged man with a previous history of MI.
C) young female athlete with cardiomegaly.
D) young sedentary male with a high-stress job.
A) elderly woman without a previous history of MI.
B) middle-aged man with a previous history of MI.
C) young female athlete with cardiomegaly.
D) young sedentary male with a high-stress job.
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29
A patient with forward effects of heart failure may present with which symptoms?
A) Impaired memory
B) Mental fatigue
C) Stupor
D) Confusion
E) Aggression
A) Impaired memory
B) Mental fatigue
C) Stupor
D) Confusion
E) Aggression
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30
Which statement is true about the incidence of heart failure?
A) Heart failure affects about 2 million Americans.
B) Heart failure is the fastest-growing cardiac disorder.
C) There are more than 400,000 new cases of heart failure diagnosed each year in the United States.
D) The increasing incidence and hospitalization rates of heart failure reflect the aging population in the United States.
E) The incidence of heart failure is 10 per 1000 population after age 65.
A) Heart failure affects about 2 million Americans.
B) Heart failure is the fastest-growing cardiac disorder.
C) There are more than 400,000 new cases of heart failure diagnosed each year in the United States.
D) The increasing incidence and hospitalization rates of heart failure reflect the aging population in the United States.
E) The incidence of heart failure is 10 per 1000 population after age 65.
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31
Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Edema
D) Excitability
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Edema
D) Excitability
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32
A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/min on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Junctional tachycardia
C) Ventricular escape rhythm
D) Sinus bradycardia
A) Third-degree heart block
B) Junctional tachycardia
C) Ventricular escape rhythm
D) Sinus bradycardia
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