Deck 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Trauma, Infection, and Disease

Question 1

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which

A) neuronal demyelination disrupts nerve transmission.
B) muscles become increasingly bulky but weakened.
C) acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.
D) acetylcholine release from motor neurons is disrupted.

Answer 1

acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.

Question 2

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as

A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.

Answer 2

comminuted.

Question 3

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

A) noncontractile tissue injury.
B) contractile tissue injury.
C) vascular insufficiency.
D) skeletal muscle damage.

Answer 3

noncontractile tissue injury.

Question 4

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

A) tender point pain.
B) head pain.
C) contractures.
D) muscle atrophy.

Question 5

Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is

A) development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
B) leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue.
C) blood vessel growth at the fracture site.
D) migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.

Question 6

A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is

A) broken in two or more pieces.
B) cracked but not completely separated.
C) broken along the long axis.
D) broken and protruding through the skin.

Question 7

Most muscle strains are due to

A) a tear in an adjoining tendon.
B) abnormal muscle contraction.
C) muscle asymmetry.
D) bleeding into the muscle.

Question 8

Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are

A) genetically transmitted.
B) easily prevented and managed.
C) autoimmune in nature.
D) demyelinating focused.

Question 9

The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

A) bone infection.
B) fat emboli.
C) air embolus.
D) compartment syndrome.

Question 10

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

A) Osteomalacia
B) Osteopenia
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Osteoporosis

Question 11

Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from a deficiency of

A) calcium.
B) estrogen.
C) phosphate.
D) vitamin D.

Question 12

Bone healing may be impaired by

A) excessive vitamin C.
B) nicotine use.
C) a high-protein diet.
D) immobilization.

Question 13

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily due to

A) dietary inadequacies.
B) estrogen deficiency.
C) malabsorption syndrome.
D) inactivity.

Question 14

What type of fracture generally occurs in children?

A) Greenstick
B) Stress
C) Nightstick
D) Colles

Question 15

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when

A) no movement of the break is detectable.
B) the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.
C) the fracture site and surrounding soft tissue are pain free.
D) a cast is no longer required to stabilize the break.

Question 16

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

A) rhabdomyolysis.
B) osteomyelitis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) bone fractures.

Question 17

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor.The priority action to take is to

A) increase the administration his pain medication.
B) initiate action to have the cast split or removed.
C) note the increase in pain in his chart, and recheck the extremity in 30 minutes.
D) elevate the extremity to relieve swelling.

Question 18

A risk factor for osteoporosis is

A) endometriosis.
B) early menopause.
C) late menopause.
D) ovarian cysts.

Question 19

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

A) muscular dystrophy.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) fibromyalgia.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 20

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called

A) malunion.
B) nonunion.
C) disunion.
D) delayed union.

Question 21

Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include

A) generalized pain.
B) sensitivity to heat.
C) headaches.
D) fatigue.
E) sleep disturbance.

Question 22

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

A) rhabdosarcoma.
B) liposarcoma.
C) osteosarcoma.
D) chondrosarcoma.

Question 23

Pain in fibromyalgia involves

A) muscle inflammation.
B) autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue.
C) nerve inflammation.
D) changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

Question 24

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.

Question 25

Characteristics of scoliosis include

A) involvement of lateral curvature of the spine.
B) increase during periods of rapid growth.
C) more common in boys.
D) identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence.
E) possibility of leading to respiratory complications.

Question 26

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is

A) pathologic fracture.
B) fever.
C) bone pain.
D) osteomyelitis.

Question 27

The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as

A) osteomyelitis.
B) osteoporosis.
C) Paget disease.
D) rickets.

Question 28

The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age

A) 68.
B) 44.
C) 8.
D) 23.

Question 29

The most common site affected in Paget's disease is the

A) lower spine.
B) skull.
C) pelvis.
D) joints.

Question 30

Paget's disease is characterized by

A) overactivity of osteoblasts leading to multiple bone tumors.
B) excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.
C) inflammatory disorder resulting in fusion of spine joints.
D) failure of resorption by osteoclasts resulting in hard bones.

Question 31

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

A) increased osteoclast activity.
B) collagen breakdown in the bone matrix.
C) crowding of cells in the osteoid.
D) inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

Question 32

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

A) bone infarction.
B) soft-tissue damage.
C) muscle necrosis.
D) breakdown of RBCs.

Question 33

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

A) an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
B) direct invasion from a fracture.
C) surgical contamination.
D) a joint prosthesis.

Question 34

The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is

A) rickets.
B) osteosarcoma.
C) Paget disease.
D) osteopenia.

Question 35

The most common type of osteomyelitis is

A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.

Question 36

A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as

A) rickets.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) subluxation.

Question 37

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

A) subluxation.
B) subjugation
C) sublimation.
D) dislocation.

Question 38

A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables.After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for

A) delayed healing.
B) malunion.
C) nonunion.
D) dysunion.