Deck 3: Prenatal Development

Question 1

A survey of over 5,000 U.S. adults of childbearing age revealed that more than 90 percent

A) do not want to have any children.
B) have negative views about the idea of parenthood.
C) have two or more children.
D) already have children or are planning to have them.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

The ovum can survive for __________ after it is released into the fallopian tube.

A) a couple of hours
B) one day
C) four days
D) six days

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following statements about birthrate trends between 1970 and 2012 is true?

A) The birthrate increased during this period for women 20 to 24 years of age.
B) The birthrate decreased during this period for women 25 years of age and older.
C) For women in their thirties, the birthrate during this period rose nearly fivefold.
D) The greatest decline in the birthrate during this period was for women in their thirties.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

An ovum bursts from one of a woman's two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________.

A) ovaries; testes
B) fallopian tubes; ovaries
C) fallopian tubes; placentas
D) ovaries; fallopian tubes

Question 5

When asked about the disadvantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

A) loss of privacy.
B) financial strain.
C) role overload.
D) work conflicts.

Question 6

The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.

A) ovaries
B) corpus luteum
C) fallopian tubes
D) cervix

Question 7

Research shows that only children __________ children with siblings.

A) are more intelligent than
B) are as well-adjusted as
C) have more emotional problems than
D) are less intelligent than

Question 8

Currently, the average number of children per woman of childbearing age is _____ in the United States.

A) 3.1
B) 2.7
C) 2.1
D) 1.8

Question 9

Which of the following statements is supported by research on family size?

A) Parental quality declines as new children are born.
B) New births lead to an increase in maternal affection toward older siblings.
C) Limiting family size increases the chances of having children with high intelligence test scores.
D) As new children are born, parents tend to reallocate their energies.

Question 10

Most U.S. adults plan to have

A) no children.
B) one child.
C) no more than two children.
D) at least three children.

Question 11

Today, in Western industrialized nations, the issue of whether to have children is a

A) biological given.
B) compelling social expectation.
C) matter of true individual choice.
D) matter of legacy.

Question 12

Following conception, the one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a(n) __________.

A) blastocyst; zygote
B) blastocyst; embryo
C) zygote; blastocyst
D) embryo; fetus

Question 13

The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________.

A) penis; scrotum
B) scrotum; penis
C) testes; penis
D) testes; scrotum

Question 14

When asked about the advantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

A) the warm, affectionate relationship that children provide.
B) having a source of financial support in later life.
C) the sense of future continuity.
D) the opportunity to deepen their marital relationship.

Question 15

More often than in the past, couples today

A) get divorced before their childbearing plans are complete.
B) are confident about their readiness for parenthood.
C) bring children into stable marriages.
D) have their first child before the age of 25.

Question 16

Greater freedom to choose whether, when, and how to have children makes contemporary family planning __________ than it was in the past.

A) less challenging
B) more intentional
C) less important
D) more random

Question 17

Research on childbearing reveals that

A) fertility problems do not increase for men between ages 25 and 45.
B) fertility problems among women do not show any increase until age 40.
C) reproductive technologies are equally successful among younger and older parents.
D) a 40-year-old man is less fertile than a 25-year-old man.

Question 18

Changing cultural values in Western industrialized nations allow people to __________ than a generation or two ago.

A) have many children with less fear of social criticism
B) remain childless with far less fear of social criticism
C) more often emphasize societal obligation over individual fulfillment
D) more often choose to give their first child a sibling

Question 19

Most conceptions result from intercourse

A) during the first week of the menstrual cycle.
B) during the last week of the menstrual cycle.
C) on the day of ovulation or during the two days following it.
D) on the day of ovulation or during the two days preceding it.

Question 20

Sperm live for up to

A) twelve hours.
B) two days.
C) four days.
D) six days.

Question 21

Between the seventh and the ninth days after fertilization, __________ occurs.

A) the period of the embryo
B) the period of the fetus
C) implantation
D) cell duplication

Question 22

During the period of the fetus, the

A) developing organism increases rapidly in size.
B) most rapid prenatal changes take place.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) brain is formed.

Question 23

The placenta is connected to the developing organism by the

A) uterine wall.
B) amnion.
C) chorion.
D) umbilical cord.

Question 24

Lanugo appears over the entire body during the __________ of pregnancy.

A) second month
B) third month
C) second trimester
D) third trimester

Question 25

During the third month of pregnancy,

A) the fetus can suck its thumb.
B) tiny buds become arms, legs, fingers, and toes.
C) neuron production begins.
D) the eyes, ears, and nose form.

Question 26

The germinal period lasts

A) for about 13 weeks, or a trimester.
B) from fertilization to implantation.
C) for about 6 weeks.
D) from conception to fertilization.

Question 27

During the second month of pregnancy, the embryo

A) can be irritated by sounds.
B) has rapid eye movements.
C) responds to touch.
D) shields its eyes in response to light.

Question 28

The thin outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the

A) new organism's skin and hair.
B) structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
C) embryonic disk.
D) nervous system and skin.

Question 29

The __________ produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function.

A) amnion
B) chorion
C) placenta
D) yolk sac

Question 30

The __________ becomes the new organism.

A) embryonic disk
B) trophoblast
C) amnion
D) chorion

Question 31

During Zola's third month of pregnancy, she should

A) be able to feel the baby move.
B) avoid regular exercise.
C) be able to hear the baby's heartbeat through a stethoscope.
D) be able to tell when the baby is alert.

Question 32

Tiny fingerlike villi

A) emerge from the chorion.
B) become the skin.
C) become the nervous system.
D) develop the skeleton.

Question 33

The most rapid prenatal changes take place during the

A) germinal period.
B) period of the fetus.
C) period of the embryo.
D) final trimester.

Question 34

Mel wonders when he will be able to find out the sex of his baby. You tell him that he should be able to detect the sex of the fetus with ultrasound by the __________ week of pregnancy.

A) ninth
B) twelfth
C) fifteenth
D) eighteenth

Question 35

During her first prenatal visit, LaToya's doctor explains that the __________ prevent(s) the skin from chapping during the long months spent bathing in the amniotic fluid.

A) villi
B) vernix
C) glial cells
D) chorion

Question 36

Valerie, two months pregnant, wonders how food and oxygen are delivered to the developing organism. You should tell Valerie that the __________ performs this function.

A) chorion
B) amnion
C) placenta
D) neural tube

Question 37

The __________ becomes the nervous system.

A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm
D) trophoblast

Question 38

The amnion

A) develops into the nervous system and the skin.
B) surrounds the chorion.
C) contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism.
D) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.

Question 39

At the beginning of the period of the embryo, the __________ system develops fastest.

A) nervous
B) circulatory
C) digestive
D) skeletal

Question 40

During the second month of pregnancy, the

A) embryo reacts to light.
B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
C) heart begins to pump blood.
D) heart develops separate chambers.

Question 41

From the twentieth week until birth,

A) brain weight increases tenfold.
B) glial cells decrease at a rapid rate.
C) the fetus is viable.
D) brain growth slows.

Question 42

The harm done by teratogens

A) is not always simple and straightforward.
B) always creates a monstrosity or malformation.
C) is never subtle.
D) can rarely be prevented.

Question 43

In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus

A) gains more than 5 pounds and grows 7 inches.
B) spends the majority of the day awake.
C) assumes a right-side-up position.
D) gains less than 2 pounds and grows less than 3 inches.

Question 44

Sara's doctor is looking inside her uterus using fetoscopy. Her 22-week-old fetus may react by

A) grabbing at the light.
B) blinking its eyes.
C) shielding its eyes.
D) kicking at the light.

Question 45

During the fetal period,

A) teratogens rarely have any impact.
B) teratogens are most likely to cause serious defects.
C) the ears can be strongly affected by teratogens.
D) teratogenic damage usually causes miscarriage.

Question 46

Dimitri was very active in the third trimester. As a 1-year-old, he will probably

A) handle frustration well.
B) be very fearful.
C) refuse to interact with unfamiliar adults.
D) be easily frustrated.

Question 47

A study involving the fetal heart rate's response to auditory stimuli during the third trimester suggests that fetuses

A) cannot hear sounds from the outside world.
B) can remember for at least a brief period.
C) cannot distinguish between their mother's voice and a stranger's voice.
D) cannot distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar melodies.

Question 48

In the eighth month of pregnancy,

A) fetal growth doubles.
B) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation.
C) most fetuses assume an upright position.
D) neurons are produced at a rapid rate.

Question 49

Carefully controlled animal experiments reveal that a poorly nourished, underweight fetus experiences changes in body structure and function that greatly increase the risk of __________ in adulthood.

A) breast cancer
B) diabetes
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) cardiovascular disease

Question 50

In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who

A) were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation.
B) had trouble establishing a regular sleep-wake pattern.
C) had irregular eating schedules.
D) were less fearful.

Question 51

The age of viability occurs sometime between _____ and _____ weeks.

A) 18; 22
B) 20; 24
C) 22; 26
D) 26; 30

Question 52

The __________ and __________ have a long period of sensitivity to teratogens.

A) hands; feet
B) palate; mouth
C) arms; legs
D) brain; eyes

Question 53

Daughters of mothers who took __________ showed unusually high rates of cancer of the vagina, malformations of the uterus, and infertility as they reached adolescence and young adulthood.

A) thalidomide
B) isotretinoin
C) diethylstilbestrol (DES)
D) aspirin

Question 54

Jesse weighed 3.3 pounds when he was born. Research shows that he is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

A) prostate cancer
B) diabetes
C) lymphatic cancer
D) Alzheimer's disease

Question 55

Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true?

A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur.
B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears.
C) In the germinal period, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact.
D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

Question 56

Carmen is prematurely delivering her baby at 28 weeks. The baby will probably

A) not survive.
B) need oxygen assistance to breathe.
C) experience intense pain.
D) spend the next few weeks with no periods of alertness.

Question 57

The __________ is the time when serious defects from teratogens are most likely to occur.

A) germinal period
B) embryonic period
C) fetal period
D) third trimester

Question 58

During the third trimester,

A) the fetus spends the majority of the day awake.
B) painkillers should be used in any surgical procedures performed on a fetus.
C) fetuses can hear bodily noises but not noises that occur outside of the womb.
D) higher fetal activity is linked with abnormal neurological development.

Question 59

Children exposed to a sedative called thalidomide were often born

A) with noncancerous tumors.
B) six to eight weeks premature.
C) with severe cognitive delays .
D) with gross deformities of the arms and legs.

Question 60

At birth, Megan weighed 9.5 pounds. Research shows that she is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

A) diabetes
B) lung cancer
C) breast cancer
D) stroke

Question 61

High doses of caffeine during pregnancy

A) increase the risk of low birth weight.
B) is only safe during the first trimester.
C) can result in gross fetal abnormalities.
D) is linked to respiratory distress in childbirth.

Question 62

The greatest damage from rubella occurs when it strikes pregnant mothers during the

A) germinal period.
B) embryonic period.
C) second trimester.
D) third trimester.

Question 63

Expectant mothers can avoid toxoplasmosis by

A) making sure the vegetables they eat are clean.
B) avoiding exposure to X-rays.
C) avoiding eating swordfish.
D) making sure that the meat they eat is well-cooked.

Question 64

Joslyn, a school custodian, is pregnant and works in an old school building where multiple layers of paint are flaking off the walls. To be safe, Joslyn should have the paint tested for

A) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).
B) mercury.
C) dioxins.
D) lead.

Question 65

__________ is safe to drink during pregnancy.

A) No amount of alcohol
B) One alcoholic beverage per day
C) Three to five alcoholic beverages per week
D) A few alcoholic beverages per month

Question 66

From one-third to one-half of nonsmoking pregnant women

A) use alcohol regularly.
B) smoked prior to finding out they were pregnant.
C) take antidepressants.
D) are "passive smokers."

Question 67

Jenna's physical growth is slow. She has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, a flattened philtrum, and brain injury. Jenna's mother probably __________ during pregnancy.

A) drank heavily
B) smoked cigarettes
C) used cocaine
D) used methadone

Question 68

Pregnant women are wise to avoid __________ to reduce the likelihood of mercury exposure.

A) getting X-rays
B) changing cat litter boxes
C) painting
D) eating long-lived predatory fish

Question 69

Which of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is true?

A) Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the virus to the developing organism 10 to 20 percent of the time.
B) About 15 to 25 percent of prenatal AIDS babies die by 1 year of age.
C) There are no available drug therapies that reduce prenatal AIDS transmission without harmful consequences.
D) AIDS progresses very slowly in infants, and rarely leads to death.

Question 70

Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo's caregivers can expect that

A) he will have high blood pressure.
B) his cries will be abnormally shrill and piercing.
C) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3.
D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

Question 71

Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is prescribed

A) as a sedative.
B) to treat severe acne.
C) to prevent miscarriages.
D) to treat depression.

Question 72

It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drug use during pregnancy because

A) most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research.
B) the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days.
C) most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy.
D) users often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other stresses.

Question 73

Which of the following statements about radiation exposure during pregnancy is true?

A) Low-level radiation from medical X-rays or industrial leakage is safe.
B) Even low-level radiation can increase the risk of childhood cancer.
C) The effects of radiation exposure are immediate and apparent.
D) Radiation exposure affects physical development, but not cognitive or emotional development.

Question 74

Kelly, a pregnant 30-year-old, has contracted the most common parasitic infection. Kelly has

A) rubella.
B) toxoplasmosis.
C) cytomegalovirus.
D) herpes simplex 2.

Question 75

In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to high levels of __________ in rice oil resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and delayed cognitive development.

A) dioxins
B) mercury
C) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
D) lead

Question 76

In healthy, physically fit women, __________ exercise is related to __________.

A) regular aerobic; low birth weight
B) frequent vigorous; a reduction in risk of high blood pressure
C) regular moderate; a reduction in risk of maternal diabetes
D) frequent vigorous; high birth weight

Question 77

Dioxin seems to impair the fertility of __________ prior to conception.

A) X-bearing ova
B) Y-bearing sperm
C) X-bearing sperm
D) Y-bearing ova

Question 78

Willa, who is pregnant, gets headaches on a regular basis and takes aspirin to relieve the pain. What should you tell Willa about the effects of aspirin use on the developing organism?

A) Regular aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy.
B) Regular aspirin use can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period.
C) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development.
D) Regular aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.

Question 79

Matthew was prenatally exposed to alcohol. His physical growth is typical and he has no facial abnormalities. However, he has impaired motor coordination, attention span, and memory. Matthew was probably born with

A) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
B) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND).
C) partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS).
D) a genetic disorder.

Question 80

Beatrice has smoked throughout her pregnancy. Now in her seventh month, Beatrice is considering quitting. You can tell her that

A) the damage was already done during the germinal period.
B) if she quits now, she reduces the likelihood that her infant will be born underweight.
C) the damage was already done during the period of the embryo.
D) quitting now will not reduce the likelihood that her infant will have colic.