Deck 26: Microbial Diseases

Question 1

A tuberculin skin test on a patient with an active tuberculosis disease will result in

A) a negative result.
B) a positive result.
C) profuse bleeding.
D) an ulcerating lesion.
E) severe bruising.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

What type of disease is an infection that normally affects animals but can be transmitted to humans?

A) zoonotic
B) herd
C) fulminating
D) recurrent or cyclic
E) community acquired

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Bacterial infections of the lung that arise secondary to viral disease are attributable in part to

A) the high virulence of the bacterial pathogen.
B) viruses providing attachment receptors for the bacteria.
C) the host's phagocytes mutating.
D) an impaired mucociliary escalator due to dehydration of the host.
E) the low virulence of the viral disease.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Using the figure below, what does RML stand for?

A) right mediastinum lobe
B) right lower lobe
C) right middle lobe
D) right upper lobe
E) right middle lung

Question 5

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all of the following EXCEPT

A) meningitis.
B) lobar pneumonia.
C) bronchopneumonia.
D) necrotizing fasciitis.
E) bacteremia.

Question 6

Using the figure below, which organism is an incidental host for Lyme disease?

A) deer
B) horse
C) mouse
D) squirrel
E) dog

Question 7

E. coli can cause which of the following infections?

A) MRSA
B) encephalitis
C) German measles
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E) meningitis

Question 8

All of the following are true for a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT that

A) latent tuberculosis is indicated.
B) it signifies active disease in all patients.
C) a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction occurred.
D) the purified protein derivative is the antigen.
E) redness and some swelling was observed.

Question 9

A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that

A) she has measles caused by the rubeola virus.
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) she has a toxin-encoding phage that also encodes antibiotic-degrading enzymes.
D) the causative agent is a MRSA.
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue has limited access to the antibiotic.

Question 10

What virus is shown in the figure below?

A) HIV
B) MRSA
C) Ebola
D) influenza
E) rhinovirus

Question 11

German measles and ________ are different names describing the same disease.

A) shingles
B) rubeola
C) rubella
D) varicella
E) smallpox

Question 12

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of influenza?

A) fever
B) runny nose
C) muscle aches
D) sore throat
E) headache

Question 13

The causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis is

A) Vibrio cholerae.
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
C) Clostridium perfringens.
D) Clostridium difficile.
E) Helicobacter pylori.

Question 14

Most diarrheal diseases are of what origin?

A) viral
B) bacterial
C) fungal
D) archaeal
E) They can be of any origin.

Question 15

Many infectious diseases display similar ________, making diagnosis difficult.

A) syndromes
B) symptoms
C) vectors
D) disease mechanisms
E) modes of transmission

Question 16

A clinician would most likely treat MRSA with

A) penicillin G.
B) tetracycline.
C) vancomycin.
D) ciprofloxacin.
E) amoxicillin.

Question 17

Rubeola measles is caused by ________ virus.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus

Question 18

Which disease below is caused without an infection?

A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis

Question 19

Which of the following respiratory infections is caused by a viral pathogen?

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) Legionnaires' disease
E) severe acute respiratory syndrome

Question 20

The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that

A) the bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) no antibiotic is useful, because it's a mixed infection.
C) toxin-encoding phage also encode antibiotic-degrading enzymes.
D) the causative agent is an MRSA.
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits treatment access.

Question 21

The presence of leukocytes in a fecal smear would best indicate ________ infection.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) enteroinvasive
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 22

Colitis is classified by inflammation in the

A) small intestine.
B) stomach lining.
C) colon.
D) large intestine.
E) small and large intestines, stomach lining, and colon.

Question 23

A chancre is the initial symptom of

A) gonorrhea.
B) chlamydia.
C) syphilis.
D) chancroid.
E) genital warts.

Question 24

Which of the following pathogens is an intracellular agent?

A) chlamydia
B) rickettsia
C) prion
D) chlamydia and rickettsia
E) None of these pathogens is an intracellular agent.

Question 25

Which of the following is correctly paired?

A) Koplik's spot-HIV-induced cancer
B) herd immunity-immunity of animals
C) acetylcholine blocker- botulism toxin
D) Lyme disease-enteric disorder
E) enteric fever-elevated white blood cell counts

Question 26

During secondary syphilis, the spirochetes spread to the nervous and cardiovascular system. Consequently

A) secondary syphilis is a latent form of the disease.
B) it cannot be cured.
C) the host remains infectious and has a characteristic rash.
D) serology is negative.
E) there is no transplacental transmission.

Question 27

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT typically prescribed for staphylococcal food poisoning?

A) The bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) No antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) No living cells are involved in the disease.
D) The causative agent is MRSA.
E) Some antibiotics will trigger gastrointestinal disease.

Question 28

By the age of three, all children are believed to have had a rotavirus infection, which is spread by what route?

A) food
B) fecal-oral
C) air
D) blood
E) water

Question 29

Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?

A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite

Question 30

Which of the following STDs is most likely to lead to sterility?

A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

Question 31

Osteomyelitis is a bone infection caused by bacteria with accompanying inflammation and bone destruction. The bones most often affected are in the

A) arm.
B) fingers.
C) neck.
D) nose.
E) lower extremities.

Question 32

What diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies?

A) meningitis
B) cytotoxin
C) neurotoxin
D) prion
E) virus

Question 33

Which of the following STDs is caused by a protozoan infection?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) HIV
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 34

In urinary tract infections (UTIs), what is the implication of the ability of bacteria to actually hide urinary tract epithelial cells and form biofilms?

A) UTIs can never be cured.
B) A reservoir for reinfection is created.
C) The kidney will invariably be infected.
D) Intracellular pathogens are the etiologies for UTI.
E) The ureter is the usual route for bladder infection.

Question 35

The most common route of infection in a urinary tract infection is the ________ to the ________.

A) gallbladder; urethra
B) bladder; kidney
C) kidney; bladder
D) urethra; bladder
E) kidney; urethra

Question 36

Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause cancer through

A) toxin production.
B) inducing superantigens.
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow.
D) injecting the CagA protein into gastric epithelial cells.
E) adhering with pili to the oropharygeal epithelium.

Question 37

Diarrhea associated with the intake of nonabsorbable substrates is categorized as

A) osmotic diarrhea.
B) motility-related diarrhea.
C) secretory diarrhea.
D) inflammatory diarrhea.
E) gastroenteritis.

Question 38

Chlamydia employs ________ for spreading within and between hosts.

A) elementary body
B) rapidly replicating reticulate body
C) microspore
D) conidia
E) actin polymer

Question 39

Strains of Escherichia coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use ________ to latch on to proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.

A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx

Question 40

A nationwide recall of spinach in 2006 was due to contamination by cattle water containing

A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) E. coli O157:H7.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella species.
E) hepatitis A virus.

Question 41

Hepatitis A and B viruses both

A) are RNA viruses.
B) infect the liver.
C) can be transmitted by blood products.
D) have vaccines.
E) infect the liver and are vaccines for both viral diseases.

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 43

Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?

Question 44

The ________ vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent (11-12 years).

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 45

Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?

A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.

Question 47

Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Interpret the reasons for its success in causing disease.

Question 48

Predict how a chest X-ray and blood counts differ for a fungal versus bacterial lung infection in children and adults.

Question 49

How can prescribing an antibiotic for a sick patient actually lead to triggering gastrointestinal illness? Explain and give an example.

Question 50

Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?

A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.

Question 51

One major source of Clostridium botulinum infection in infants is

A) any honey-based meal.
B) endospore-contaminated honey.
C) contaminated drinking water.
D) fomites in the house.
E) breast milk.

Question 52

Using the following figures, interpret what is occurring in Figure A.

Question 53

Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and sheep-related products?

Question 54

A hunter who presents with flu-like symptoms and lives in Boston, Massachusetts, has a "bull's-eye" rash on his leg. The appropriate diagnosis is

A) Lyme disease
B) tuleremia
C) meningitis
D) malaria
E) measles

Question 55

Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?

A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.

Question 56

Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?

A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B

Question 57

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for the enterohemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7, or EHEC?

Question 58

A commonly implicated causative agent of subacute endocarditis (SBE) is

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Viridans streptococci.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Borrelia burgdorferi.

Question 59

What evidence suggests that Columbus did not bring syphilis back from the New World, but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?

Question 60

What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?

Question 61

People who come down with STDs and do not get treated, frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.

Question 62

What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.

Question 63

Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism neurotoxins.

Question 64

Using the following figures, interpret what is occurring in Figure C.

Question 65

How does Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secrete its potent toxins in food?

Question 66

Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.

Question 67

Using the figures below, summarize what is occurring at D.

Question 68

Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.

Question 69

Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.