Deck 3: Prenatal Development, birth, and the Newborn Baby

Question 1

Fertilization usually takes place in the

A) uterus.
B) cervix.
C) fallopian tubes.
D) ovaries.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The mesoderm will become the

A) nervous system and skin.
B) endocrine and digestive systems.
C) muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, and other internal organs.
D) digestive system, lungs, urinary tract, and glands.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

As early as the third month of pregnancy,

A) the fetus can suck its thumb.
B) the fetus can survive if born prematurely.
C) most of the brain's neurons are in place.
D) vernix covers the skin of the fetus.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The umbilical cord rarely tangles during pregnancy because the

A) force of blood flowing through it keeps it firm.
B) walls of the cord are much too rigid for it to knot.
C) thickness of the amniotic fluid does not allow the cord to float freely in the uterus.
D) cord is simply too short to knot.

Question 5

The trophoblast

A) develops into the nervous system and spinal cord.
B) swells to form the brain.
C) will become the structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
D) grows slowly at first.

Question 6

The ectoderm folds over to form the

A) neural tube.
B) lungs.
C) heart.
D) brain.

Question 7

Lanugo

A) permits food and oxygen to reach the organism.
B) provides the fetus a cushion against jolts caused by the mother's movements.
C) helps regulate the fetus's body temperature.
D) is a white, downy hair that covers the fetus's entire body.

Question 8

The __________ surrounds the amnion.

A) placenta
B) yolk sac
C) chorion
D) umbilical cord

Question 9

The groundwork is laid for all body structures during the period of the __________,whereas the rate of body growth is greatest during the period of the __________.

A) zygote; embryo
B) embryo; fetus
C) fetus; embryo
D) zygote; fetus

Question 10

Which of the following statements about a blastocyst is true?

A) It consists of a single cell.
B) By the fourth day, it is a hollow, fluid-filled ball made up of 60 to 70 cells.
C) It is a membrane that helps to keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
D) It is connected to the developing organism by the umbilical cord.

Question 11

The ovum

A) measures around 1/500 inch.
B) is the size of a period at the end of a sentence.
C) is the smallest cell in the human body.
D) bursts from one of two ovaries about once every 7 days.

Question 12

The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.

A) corpus luteum
B) fallopian tubes
C) cervix
D) embryo

Question 13

The yolk sac

A) delivers food and oxygen to the developing organism.
B) helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
C) delivers nutrients and removes waste products.
D) produces blood cells until the organs are mature enough to take over this function.

Question 14

While the senses of sight and sound have begun to emerge by 20 weeks,a fetus born at this time cannot survive because

A) its brain cannot yet control breathing and body temperature.
B) the billions of neurons of its brain are not yet produced.
C) the cerebral cortex, the seat of human intelligence, is too large.
D) the neurons of its brain have not begun forming synapses.

Question 15

During Michelle's __________ month of pregnancy,the eyes,ears,and nose form.

A) second
B) third
C) fourth
D) fifth

Question 16

During the period of the embryo,the ectoderm develops and forms the

A) muscles and skeleton.
B) nervous system and skin.
C) digestive system, lungs, and urinary tract.
D) brain and central nervous system.

Question 17

The age of viability

A) is the point at which the baby can first survive if born early.
B) occurs sometime between 18 and 21 weeks.
C) is the point at which the baby can be born without being premature.
D) occurs sometime during the second trimester of pregnancy.

Question 18

The period of the zygote

A) lasts about two weeks.
B) lasts from implantation through the eighth week of pregnancy.
C) is the longest prenatal period.
D) is the prenatal period during which the groundwork is laid for all body structures and organs.

Question 19

The embryonic disk

A) becomes the new organism.
B) is the outer ring of cells on a blastocyst.
C) has a good chance of survival outside the womb.
D) is a protective membrane that surrounds the amnion.

Question 20

During the period of the embryo,the __________ becomes the __________.

A) mesoderm; nervous system, lungs, internal organs, and skin
B) chorion; endocrine system, muscles, placenta, and skeleton
C) ectoderm; circulatory system, skin, skeleton, and internal organs
D) endoderm; digestive system, lungs, urinary tract, and glands

Question 21

In the eighth month of pregnancy,

A) fetal growth doubles.
B) viability occurs.
C) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation.
D) most fetuses assume an upright position.

Question 22

__________ use during pregnancy has been linked to childhood and adolescent depression and aggression.

A) Prescription drug use
B) Heroin
C) Marijuana
D) Cocaine

Question 23

Dori takes a vitamin A derivative called Accutane to treat her acne.Dori is considering becoming pregnant.Dori should know that exposure to Accutane during the

A) first trimester rarely has any impact on the developing organism.
B) prenatal period can produce gross deformities of the embryo's arms and legs.
C) first trimester results in eye, ear, skull, brain, heart, and immune system abnormalities.
D) second trimester results in malformations of the uterus in daughters and increased risk of testicular cancer in sons.

Question 24

Men affected by even tiny amounts of dioxin in their bloodstream father

A) more twins and triplets than unaffected men.
B) more boys than girls.
C) nearly twice as many girls as boys.
D) fewer children than unaffected men.

Question 25

Research on fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)indicates that

A) even mild drinking is associated with reduced head size and body growth.
B) the impairments caused by heavy, regular alcohol use during pregnancy are reversible.
C) all fetuses are equally vulnerable to the damaging effects of prenatal alcohol exposure.
D) FAS babies catch up to agemates in physical size when provided with an enriched diet.

Question 26

Even at low levels,polychlorinated biphenyls are linked to

A) deformities of the gums and nails.
B) persisting attention and memory difficulties.
C) difficulty in chewing and swallowing.
D) breast and uterine cancers in women.

Question 27

Recent evidence suggests that paternal alcohol use around the time of conception

A) can cause fetal alcohol syndrome.
B) can alter gene expression, thereby contributing to symptoms of partial fetal alcohol syndrome.
C) can cause alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder.
D) has no negative effect on the developing organism.

Question 28

The effects of teratogens

A) are predictable and straightforward.
B) are not usually impacted by heredity.
C) are always detectible at birth.
D) vary with the age of the organism at the time of exposure.

Question 29

Willa gets regular headaches.While pregnant,Willa begins using aspirin to ease the pain because she is convinced that aspirin is harmless.Which of the following effects can Willa's regular aspirin use have on the developing organism?

A) Aspirin use can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period.
B) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development.
C) Even moderate aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.
D) None. Aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy.

Question 30

In the last weeks of pregnancy,

A) the fetus usually loses a pound or two.
B) most fetuses assume an upside-down position.
C) fetal growth increases dramatically.
D) the fetus begins relying on its own well-developed immune system.

Question 31

Mental impairment associated with all three fetal alcohol spectrum disorders diagnoses

A) generally disappears by the preschool years.
B) is minor.
C) usually improves by adolescence.
D) is permanent.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true?

A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur.
B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears.
C) In the period of the zygote, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact.
D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

Question 33

In addition to nicotine's effects on a developing organism,smoking during pregnancy

A) causes an abnormally low fetal heart rate.
B) causes newborns to be less excitable when touched and visually stimulated.
C) displaces oxygen with carbon monoxide.
D) increases the risk of having a cesarean delivery.

Question 34

Adolescents prenatally exposed to smoking tend to have __________ than those born to mothers who did not smoke.

A) higher levels of disruptive, aggressive behavior
B) higher mental test scores
C) longer attention spans
D) earlier onset of puberty

Question 35

If a pregnant woman stops smoking __________,she reduces the likelihood that her infant will be born underweight and suffer from future problems.

A) before the end of the first trimester
B) before the fourth month of pregnancy
C) before the six month of pregnancy
D) at any time

Question 36

Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne,a heroin addict.Mateo's caregivers can expect that

A) he will have a low birth weight, be irritable, and have trouble sleeping.
B) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3.
C) he will have characteristics of Down syndrome.
D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

Question 37

Regina eats a mostly vegetarian diet,but she eats a lot of fish.When she becomes pregnant,what should Regina know about environmental pollution in fish?

A) Long-lived predatory fish, such as swordfish, albacore tuna, and shark, are heavily contaminated with mercury.
B) Freshwater fish, such as perch and trout, carry a startling array of industrial contaminants-287 in all.
C) While some fish are contaminated with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), steady, low-level PCB exposure is not harmful.
D) Fish can be heavily contaminated with lead, exposure to which is related to prematurity and brain damage.

Question 38

Which of the following statements about teratogens is true?

A) The harm done by teratogens is simple and straightforward.
B) Any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period is a teratogen.
C) Smaller doses over shorter time periods have more negative effects.
D) Teratogens have an equal impact on fetal development during each prenatal period.

Question 39

Routine vaccination in infancy and childhood has made new __________ outbreaks unlikely in industrialized nations.

A) rubella
B) HIV
C) malaria
D) toxoplasmosis

Question 40

Between 23 and 30 weeks,

A) fetuses display rhythmic alterations between sleep and wakefulness that gradually increase in organization.
B) connections form between the cerebral cortex and brain regions involved in pain sensitivity.
C) fetuses distinguish the tone and rhythm of different voices and sounds.
D) the mother can first feel the fetus's movements.

Question 41

The Apgar Scale rates

A) appearance, personality, grimace, activity, and reflexes.
B) aptitude, pulse, grimace, appearance, and renal function.
C) appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration.
D) airway, personality, general temperament, appearance, and reaction time.

Question 42

Before the late 1800s,childbirth usually took place

A) at home and was a family-centered event.
B) at home, but away from other family members.
C) in a hospital with trained midwives.
D) in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital.

Question 43

An Apgar score __________ indicates that the infant is in good physical condition.

A) of 10 or better
B) between 7 and 10
C) between 4 and 6
D) of 3 or below

Question 44

If not identified and treated during routine prenatal care,__________ can cause sharp increases in maternal blood pressure,along with swelling of the hands,face,and feet in the last half of pregnancy.

A) diabetes
B) toxemia
C) toxoplasmosis
D) cytomegalovirus

Question 45

Janelle is a first-time mother.The first stage of her labor will probably last between __________ hours.

A) 2 and 4
B) 5 and 7
C) 8 and 10
D) 12 and 14

Question 46

The poorer the mother's diet,the __________,especially if malnutrition occurs during the last trimester.

A) greater the birth weight
B) greater the loss in brain weight
C) greater the brain weight
D) smaller the heart

Question 47

Twelve-year-old children of mothers who were home visited as part of the Nurse-Family Partnership __________ than comparison-group agemates.

A) scored lower in impulsivity and overactivity
B) had lower academic achievement scores
C) showed more aggressive behavior
D) reported less alcohol and drug use

Question 48

Andrew received a combined Apgar score of 5.This means that Andrew

A) was in danger at birth, but quickly recovered and is now in good physical condition.
B) is in good physical condition.
C) is in serious danger and requires emergency medical attention.
D) needs assistance in establishing breathing and other vital signs.

Question 49

A healthy diet that results in a weight gain of __________ pounds helps ensure the health of the mother and baby.

A) 15 to 20
B) 25 to 30
C) 35 to 40
D) 45 to 50

Question 50

Ursula is in the second stage of labor.She can expect __________ during this stage.

A) contractions of the uterus to begin gradually and become more frequent and powerful
B) the placenta to separate from the uterine wall and be delivered
C) the cervix to widen and thin to nothing
D) her baby to be born

Question 51

To avoid exposure to toxoplasmosis,Kaye should ask other family members to

A) stop smoking.
B) pick up after the dogs.
C) change the litter box.
D) feed the fish.

Question 52

Rh incompatibility problems are most likely to occur if an Rh-negative mother is carrying her __________ baby.

A) second Rh-positive
B) first Rh-negative
C) first Rh-positive
D) second Rh-negative

Question 53

During childbirth,high levels of infant cortisol and other stress hormones

A) endanger the baby.
B) are adaptive.
C) cause the baby's bronchial tubes to contract.
D) cause the baby to be sleepy and listless.

Question 54

When women experience severe emotional stress during pregnancy,their babies tend to be

A) born later.
B) more irritable during the first three years.
C) heavier and longer at birth.
D) less irritable during the first three months.

Question 55

Prenatally malnourished babies frequently

A) reject breast milk.
B) have enlarged hearts.
C) have a higher-than-average birth weight.
D) have lifelong health problems.

Question 56

Which of the following mothers is the most likely to have had inadequate prenatal care?

A) Harriet, who is uninsured and 22
B) Marissa, who is married and 28
C) Rachel, who is single and 35
D) Janette, who is married and 40

Question 57

Which of the following statements about HIV-infected expectant mothers is true?

A) In South Africa, nearly 75 percent of all pregnant women are HIV-positive.
B) Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the deadly virus to the developing organism 70 to 80 percent of the time.
C) Antiretroviral drug therapy reduces prenatal AIDS transmission by as much as 95 percent.
D) Antiretroviral drugs are now widely available in impoverished regions of the world.

Question 58

Research indicates that healthy women in their __________ have about the same rates of pregnancy complications as those in their __________.

A) thirties; twenties
B) forties; twenties
C) forties; thirties
D) fifties; thirties

Question 59

Maternal stress hormones can cross the placenta,causing

A) the fetal heart rate to slow down.
B) a dramatic drop in the fetal blood pressure rate.
C) a dramatic rise in fetal stress hormones.
D) a reduction in blood flow to the brain.

Question 60

The third stage of labor involves

A) delivery of the placenta.
B) delivery of the baby.
C) dilation.
D) effacement of the cervix.

Question 61

The rooting reflex

A) has survival value.
B) is sometimes called the "embracing" reflex.
C) protects the infant from strong stimulation.
D) prepares the infant for voluntary grasping.

Question 62

__________ infants are born at least several weeks before their due date,while __________ infants are below the expected weight based upon the length of the pregnancy.

A) Small-for-date; preterm
B) Low-birth-weight; small-for-date
C) Preterm; small-for-date
D) Preterm; low-birth-weight

Question 63

In the United States,the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________,which is largely preventable.

A) sudden infant death syndrome
B) low birth weight
C) physical abnormality
D) malnutrition

Question 64

Fetal monitoring

A) increases the likelihood of infant brain damage.
B) is not helpful in detecting distress due to anoxia.
C) should not be used because it is a risky procedure.
D) may identify babies as in danger who, in fact, are not.

Question 65

Cerebral palsy results from

A) an extra X chromosome.
B) a mutation in the twenty-first pair of chromosomes.
C) a recessive disorder involving a harmful allele.
D) brain damage before, during, or just after birth.

Question 66

Anesthetics

A) are not used in childbirth in the United States.
B) block sensation.
C) relieve pain and help the mother relax.
D) are used in more than 80 percent of U.S. births.

Question 67

One important concern about home deliveries is that

A) they are very risky, even for healthy mothers and babies.
B) the home environment is not as clean and sanitary as a hospital.
C) attendants may not be trained to handle emergencies.
D) there is too much confusion with family members present.

Question 68

In response to a stroke on her cheek near the corner of her mouth,newborn Azalea should

A) quickly close her eyelids.
B) suck rhythmically.
C) turn her head toward the source of stimulation.
D) fan her toes out and curl them as her foot twists in.

Question 69

Today,most hospitals

A) encourage family participation, but do not allow maternal control over labor and delivery.
B) do not allow family members and friends to participate in the birth.
C) offer birth centers that are family-centered and homelike.
D) discourage childbirth medication and delivery instruments.

Question 70

When Jason bumps baby Grayson's baby carrier,Grayson flings his arms wide and brings them back toward his body.Grayson's reaction is the __________ reflex.

A) rooting
B) sucking
C) Moro
D) stepping

Question 71

Small-for-date infants __________ than preterm infants.

A) have chubbier cheeks and larger eyes
B) are less likely to die
C) more often show evidence of brain damage
D) more often are held close, touched, and talked to gently

Question 72

Natural,or prepared,childbirth includes

A) routine use of strong drugs.
B) classes about the anatomy and physiology of labor and delivery.
C) fetal monitoring and anesthetics.
D) a surgical birth.

Question 73

Which of the following statements about health care and other policies for parents and newborn babies is true?

A) Four weeks of childbirth leave predicts favorable maternal mental health, supportive marital interactions, and sensitive caregiving.
B) The U.S. federal government guarantees women at least 10 prenatal visits at very low or no cost.
C) Six weeks or less of childbirth leave predicts maternal anxiety, depression, marital dissatisfaction, sense of role overload, and negative interactions with the baby.
D) Over the past three decades, the United States has made more progress in reducing infant deaths than any other nation in the world.

Question 74

The most common approach to controlling pain during labor is

A) a spinal block.
B) general anesthesia.
C) epidural analgesia.
D) use of a doula.

Question 75

During her labor,Renae asks for a mild dose of painkillers to help her relax.Renae will probably be given a(n)

A) anesthetic.
B) analgesic.
C) folic acid supplement.
D) anti-inflammatory.

Question 76

Forty years ago,__________ was rare.

A) use of anesthesia during childbirth
B) cesarean delivery
C) hospital delivery
D) routine use of delivery instruments

Question 77

A certified nurse-midwife

A) cannot legally deliver a baby at home in most states.
B) has a degree in nursing and additional training in childbirth management.
C) can perform a cesarean delivery and can administer medication to control pain.
D) is not a medical professional, but is trained in labor and delivery support.

Question 78

__________ reduces the likelihood of birth complications and shortens labors.

A) A supportive labor companion
B) Labor and delivery medication
C) A cesarean section
D) Forceps delivery

Question 79

Which of the following statements about caring for preterm infants is true?

A) Compared with full-term infants, preterm babies are more often held close, touched, and talked to gently.
B) Even parents with stable life circumstances and social supports usually cannot overcome the stresses of caring for a preterm infant.
C) Preterm infants who are left in isolettes and are rarely touched gain weight faster and, at the end of the first year, are more advanced in mental and motor development over preterm babies given massage stimulation.
D) Mothers and fathers practicing kangaroo skin-to-skin contact feel more confident about caring for their preterm babies and interact more sensitively and affectionately with them.

Question 80

Birth weight

A) varies only slightly in American infants.
B) decreases as the length of the pregnancy increases.
C) is usually highest among poverty-stricken women.
D) is the best available predictor of infant survival and healthy development.