Deck 5: Prenatal Development, the Newborn, and the Transition to Parenthood

Question 1

There are many more male conceptions than female conceptions because

A) the intrauterine environment is more hostile to female conceptions.
B) sperm containing the smaller Y chromosome are lighter so they can swim faster and reach the egg first.
C) there are fewer sperm that contain an X chromosome than contain a Y chromosome.
D) more eggs contain Y chromosomes than X chromosomes.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

During a woman's monthly menstrual cycle, her ovary releases an egg in the process of

A) meiosis.
B) implantation.
C) fertilization.
D) ovulation.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The embryonic stage of prenatal development is considered a critical period for development because

A) this is the stage when the gender of the conception is determined.
B) all major organs and structures are undergoing rapid development, and damage done at this point can be both severe and irreversible.
C) the conception may implant in the fallopian tubes rather than in the uterus.
D) most of the genetic abnormalities that we see in infants happen during this stage of prenatal development.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The outer ring of cells in the blastocyst will go on to become the
a. support system for the pregnancy.
b. trophoblast.
c. chorion.
d. embryo.

Question 5

____________________ is an infertility treatment in which eggs are surgically removed from the woman and mixed with sperm to create an embryo that is then placed in her uterus.

A) Artificial insemination
B) Gamete intrafallopian transfer
C) In vitro fertilization
D) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection.

Question 6

The _____________________ stage of prenatal development lasts from about 2 weeks postconception to two months.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) placental

Question 7

During prenatal development

A) male conceptions are more vulnerable than female conceptions and therefore are less likely to survive.
B) the last trimester is the most risky period of development.
C) more females are conceived, but they are also less likely to survive.
D) there are more male conceptions, but male conceptions are less likely to successfully implant in the uterus.

Question 8

During prenatal development

A) all the baby's senses become functional to some extent.
B) the developing baby is protected from all sensory input from the environment.
C) rudimentary senses develop, but most of this development does not occur until after birth.
D) auditory and visual senses develop, but the remaining senses are not yet functional.

Question 9

Infants who are born smaller than the average for their gestational age are

A) more vulnerable to infections.
B) more difficult for the mother to deliver.
C) more likely to suffer from colic.
D) more likely to have genetic abnormalities.

Question 10

Couvade is

A) when the woman first feels the fetus moving in her womb.
B) a sympathetic pregnancy a man might experience while his partner is pregnant.
C) a prenatal genetic diagnostic test.
D) a measure of the newborn's functioning.

Question 11

Throughout prenatal development, we see cephalocaudal development which means that development

A) begins at the central line of the body and works outwards from there.
B) proceeds from the head region down through the body.
C) is very rapid at the beginning of the pregnancy, but then slows down.
D) is very vulnerable to damage early in the pregnancy, but is more resistant later on.

Question 12

The most common cause of miscarriage is

A) genetic abnormalities.
B) poor maternal diet.
C) maternal smoking.
D) maternal drinking.

Question 13

At conception

A) there are twice as many females conceptions are male conceptions.
B) between 107 and 170 males are conceived for every 100 females.
C) there are as many females conceptions as there are male conceptions.
D) there are 130 females conceptions for every 100 male conceptions.

Question 14

It is a good precaution for a pregnant woman to

A) limit her exposure to the sun during her pregnancy.
B) stop exercising while she is pregnant.
C) limit her consumption of caffeine.
D) limit her intake of foods high in folic acid.

Question 15

The first stage of prenatal development is the

A) embryonic stage.
B) fetal stage.
C) germinal stage.
D) conceptual stage.

Question 16

When infertility is a problem for a couple

A) it is usually a problem with the viability of the sperm.
B) it is usually a problem with the woman's production of viable eggs.
C) one-third of the cases have to do with female factors, one-third are due to male factors, and the remaining cases are mutual or can't be determined.
D) in 70% of the cases the problem is related to female factors, and in the remaining 30% of the cases it is related to male factors.

Question 17

An important developmental event at 9 weeks gestational age is that the

A) testes of a male embryo begin to produce androgens and that alters the development of the genitalia into a male reproductive system.
B) ovaries of a female embryo begin to produce estrogen and that alters the development of the genitalia into a female reproductive system.
C) conception implants in the lining of the uterus and establishes a connection with the maternal system.
D) placenta begins to function and now brings nutrients and oxygen to the developing embryo.

Question 18

A couple is considered to have a problem with fertility if they

A) miscarry more than two conceptions.
B) fail to conceive within 1 year of frequent, unprotected sex.
C) do not respond to infertility treatments, such as hormonal supplements.
D) are both are over the age of 35 years.

Question 19

The process of a sperm uniting with an egg is called

A) meiosis.
B) implantation.
C) fertilization.
D) ovulation.

Question 20

The current recommended weight gain during a pregnancy in the United States is

A) 15 to 18 pounds.
B) 18 to 23 pounds.
C) 25 to 35 pounds.
D) Any amount of weight gain is acceptable.

Question 21

A severely restricted diet during pregnancy can lower a woman's basal metabolic rate, later putting her child at risk of

A) obesity.
B) cardiac disorders.
C) infections.
D) vision problems or blindness.

Question 22

A recent study of the impact of drinking alcohol during pregnancy found that drinking throughout pregnancy raised the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome disorder

A) 12 times.
B) 25 times.
C) 50 times.
D) 65 times.

Question 23

Increased impulsivity and hyperactivity, as well as difficulty with organizing and integrating information, has been reported in children born to women who heavily used marijuana during their pregnancy. This is likely because

A) cannabis crosses through the placenta and alters the neurology in the prefrontal cortex, the part of the brain that handles higher cognitive functioning.
B) the newborns undergo a difficult period of withdrawal from the drug following their birth.
C) the lungs of the newborn are underdeveloped and the brain does not receive an adequate supply of oxygen.
D) cannabis restricts the blood flow to the developing fetal brain during the second trimester of the pregnancy.

Question 24

Which of the following statements about maternal smoking is true?

A) The effect on the functioning of the child's brain is stronger for girls than it is for boys.
B) Fortunately the rate of smoking has decreased the most among women ages 19 to 29 in recent years.
C) Stopping to smoke during a pregnancy will have no effect on the outcome of that pregnancy.
D) Maternal smoking has been associated with attention deficit disorder, conduct disorders, and learning disabilities.

Question 25

One of the reasons why babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancy show growth retardation (that is, they are small and lighter than average for their gestational age) is that nicotine

A) destroys many of the nutrients in the woman's blood.
B) slows down the rate of cell division in the developing fetus.
C) constricts the blood vessels and limits the flow of oxygen and nutrients through the placenta.
D) makes the fetus more active and this additional activity reduces the size of the fetus.

Question 26

The effect of a woman contracting rubella (or German measles) during her pregnancy

A) is universally devastating, and almost always ends the pregnancy.
B) results in significant problems in 90% of the cases.
C) results in significant problems in only about 10% of the cases.
D) results in congenital problems in 90% of the cases if the woman is infected early in her pregnancy, but only about 20% of the cases if she is infected late in her pregnancy.

Question 27

Which of the following prescription medications do doctors usually recommend that a woman continue to take while she is pregnant?

A) Accutane, used to treat acne
B) Azidothymidine (or AZT), used to treat HIV/AIDS
C) Thalidomide, used to treat leprosy
D) Soriatane, used to treat the skin condition psoriasis

Question 28

During the phase of labor called transition

A) contractions are relatively light and are not painful so the woman can continue light activities.
B) contractions come rapidly with little or no break in them and the amniotic sac ruptures.
C) the baby moves down into the birth canal and the woman has a strong urge to push.
D) the uterus contracts following the birth of the baby and the placenta is expelled.

Question 29

A birth may be assisted by a doula who is a(n)

A) physician's assistant.
B) certified midwife.
C) trained companion who is present at the birth to support the woman.
D) employee of the hospital who supervises the labor and delivery.

Question 30

The effects of maternal drinking during a pregnancy

A) are permanent and irreversible.
B) reversible if the mother stops drinking at some point in the pregnancy.
C) are reduced if the mother only drinks heavily during the early part of her pregnancy.
D) are reduced if the mother only drinks beer or wine, but not hard liquor.

Question 31

Abnormal facial features, small stature, a small head, cognitive deficits, and trouble controlling behavior and emotions are all characteristics associated with

A) maternal rubella during a pregnancy.
B) fetal alcohol syndrome.
C) a poor maternal diet.
D) use of prescription drugs while pregnant.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about birthing options is true?

A) If a woman wanted full access to medical procedures and medications during her delivery, she would choose a birthing center.
B) Birthing centers are reserved for women who are having very low risk pregnancies.
C) In the United States today, about 10% of pregnancy women choose to have a home birth.
D) Home births represent less than 1% of U.S. births, and are reserved for low risk pregnancies.

Question 33

The Apgar Scale is used

A) by the mother to describe the amount of pain she is experiencing during labor.
B) by the doctor to assess the ease or difficulty of the delivery.
C) to assess the overall condition of a newborn at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D) by the parents to describe the quality of their transition to parenthood.

Question 34

Research with primates has found that when maternal diets were inadequate for a sustained part of a pregnancy, the infants

A) were more prone to later become obese when they were raised in an environment where food was abundant. B. tended to stay small and lighter throughout their lifetime.
C) appeared to be unaffected, but their offspring tended to be weak and malnourished.
D) still managed to get all the nutrients that they needed from their mothers.

Question 35

It is recommended that women who are HIV-positive do not breastfeed their infants because

A) the HIV virus is present in the mother's breast milk and can be passed to the infant this way.
B) most HIV-positive women cannot produce enough milk to successfully breastfeed their infants.
C) infants born to mothers with HIV are too weak to nurse and must be fed intravenously.
D) women with HIV need to devote so much time to their own health needs that they do not have time necessary to breastfeed.

Question 36

Data on pain control during labor and delivery show that in the United States

A) about three-quarters of women have an epidural or spinal analgesic to provide pain relief during their labor.
B) most women do not need any medication to provide pain relief while they are in labor.
C) most women find that controlled breathing techniques are all that they need to manage their discomfort during labor.
D) three-quarters of women use an epidural during labor, but most report that it was ineffective in controlling their pain.

Question 37

Babies are able to handle going through the birth process because

A) the baby's sense of touch and pain are not functional until after the baby is born.
B) the anesthetic that is given to the mother during her labor is transferred to the baby and desensitizes the baby to pain.
C) the baby's cardiac and respiratory functions cease when labor begins.
D) the uterine contractions and oxygen deprivation that the baby experiences release stress hormones that prepare the baby to survive.

Question 38

A study that Williams and Umberson (1999) conducted with expectant couples found that

A) the expectant father and the expectant mother felt differently about the medical technologies (such as sonograms or fetal monitoring) that were used.
B) the information gained from medical technologies helped the woman adopt a more experience-oriented approach to childbirth.
C) the use of an epidural injection to reduce the mother's pain had relatively little effect on either the mother's or the father's experience.
D) most couples said that they wished there was even more technology available to assist them.

Question 39

Maternal stress during a pregnancy seems to have its greatest impact if it occurs

A) early in the prenatal period.
B) close to the time of delivery.
C) from time to time, rather than being a continuous state.
D) at a low but constant level throughout the pregnancy.

Question 40

If a woman has an active case of genital herpes at the time she is ready to deliver her baby

A) the doctor will swab her birth canal with an antibiotic during the second stage of labor.
B) the doctor will induce labor in the eighth month of the pregnancy.
C) the baby is usually delivered by cesarean section rather than through a vaginal delivery.
D) it is unlikely that the infant will survive the delivery.

Question 41

Some research that has been conducted on the experience of fathers who participate in the birth of their children has found that

A) father are less and less likely to participate in each succeeding birth in his family.
B) the rate of fathers participating in the birth experience of their children is steadily declining in industrialized countries.
C) many feel coerced into participating and their most outstanding memory of the event is the pain their partner endured.
D) most fathers felt that it was better when fathers were prohibited from taking part in the birth experience.

Question 42

It is normal for a newborn to

A) sleep 10 to 12 hours a day, with almost all of the sleep time spent in REM sleep.
B) wake every 6 to 8 hours to be fed and to sleep through the night by 3 months of age.
C) spend most of their sleep time in deep sleep, with little or no REM sleep.
D) sleep 16 to 18 hours out of each day and to wake to eat every 3 to 4 hours.

Question 43

Between 1965 and 2003, the amount of time that men spent in caring for a newborn

A) doubled.
B) tripled.
C) remained about the same.
D) decreased by 25%.

Question 44

Infants who are born prematurely

A) have less than a 20% chance of surviving their first month of life.
B) inevitably go on to have a severe range of disabilities later in life.
C) will have some degree of mental retardation, usually at the severe end.
D) have a wide range of developmental outcomes, from mild to severe

Question 45

What percentage of conceptions fail to implant and do not survive?

A) Between 10% and 20%
B) Between 25% and 35%
C) Between 30% and 50%
D) Between 50% and 65%

Question 46

The American Academy of Pediatrics has recommended that

A) parents and infants sleep in the same bed because it ensure a close emotional bond.
B) infants sleep close to their parents, but that they do not sleep in the same bed.
C) infants sleep in a separate room because this helps them develop emotional control and regulation.
D) infants be kept awake until it is time for the parents to go to bed so everyone gets a good night's sleep.

Question 47

When parents watched videos of infants who they were told were either premature or full-term (even though all of the videotapes were of full-term infants), the parents rated the behavior of the infants who had been labeled "premature" as

A) more calm, more controlled, and more responsive than infants labeled "full-term".
B) indistinguishable from the infants labeled "full-term" on measures of physical and behavior maturity, but less cognitively competent.
C) less physically mature in appearance, less cognitively competent, and less behaviorally mature than infants labeled "full-term".
D) more angry, more aggressive and less cooperative than infants labeled "full-term".

Question 48

Which of the following statements accurately describes why a mother and her child can have different blood types?

A) The two blood systems of the placenta remain separate throughout the pregnancy.
B) The fetal arteries connect to the mothers circulation system, but the maternal hormones prevent cross-contamination of blood.
C) The placenta's only function is to bring oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, with no return transfer to the mother.
D) The placenta's only function is to transfer fetal waste away from the fetus to the mother, with involvement of the fetus' blood supply.

Question 49

For a diagnosis of postpartum depression

A) the symptoms must appear in the first month following the birth.
B) the symptoms must be severe enough that they interfere with the woman's ability to function.
C) the woman must experience mood swings, loss of appetite, and trouble sleeping.
D) the symptoms must last for more than 6 months before the woman is treated.

Question 50

In a comparison of infant mortality rates, in 2006 the United States

A) had one of the lowest rates of infant deaths in the world.
B) improved its position from number 6 to number 3 in a decade.
C) slipped from having the lowest rate to being number 2.
D) ranked near the bottom on a list of industrialized nations.

Question 51

One of the ways that we provide an appropriate amount of stimulation to a premature infant is to

A) regularly bathe them in warm water.
B) use kangaroo care so the infant has skin-to-skin contact with the parent.
C) pipe in music and hang mobiles over their incubators.
D) place 3 or 4 premature infants together in the same incubator.

Question 52

Based on current knowledge regarding the ratio of male to female conceptions, we now know that

A) there are an equal number of male and female conceptions.
B) there are more male conceptions than female conceptions.
C) there are more female conceptions than male conceptions.
D) there are more female fetuses lost in the early weeks of a pregnancy.

Question 53

Following the birth of a baby, the partners

A) typically show a reversal of gender roles, with the father taking on more feminine roles and the mother assuming more masculine roles.
B) both become disgruntled about the inequities in the amount of work they are each doing.
C) both do less work around the house than they did prior to the baby's birth.
D) assume a more traditional division of household labor.

Question 54

When new mothers receive conflicting advice about how to care for their newborn, they frequently say they

A) do whatever their best friend has recommended.
B) follow the advice that they receive from their own mother.
C) rely upon their own instincts or experience, or use the baby's cues to guide them.
D) prefer using advice they find on the Internet over advice they receive from friends and family.

Question 55

When a couple becomes parents, women worry more about _______________, men worry more about ________________, and they both worry about _______________.

A) their physical appearance; providing for their family financially; the increase in household responsibilities
B) their physical appearance; the increase in household responsibilities; providing for their family financially
C) their figure; changed relationships with in-laws; providing for their family financially
D) their figure; the increase in household responsibilities; changed relationships with in-laws

Question 56

Today the survival rate for premature infants weighing less than 1500 grams is

A) approximately 90%.
B) less than 50%.
C) decreasing, rather than increasing.
D) the same as it was two decades ago.

Question 57

In order to stimulate prenatal learning, research findings indicate

A) the more stimulation that is provided during the prenatal time frame, the more cognitively advanced the child will be.
B) stimulation that goes beyond what is normally provided to the developing fetus is not necessarily better and could even be harmful.
C) no stimulation needs to be provided during the prenatal period for neural growth to reach an optimal state.
D) direct stimulation through the use of electrical impulses is the best way to enhance neural growth.

Question 58

A prematurity stereotype is

A) beneficial to premature infants because we expect very little from them, and this is appropriate for their developmental level.
B) a stereotypically negative view of a premature infant that results in parents or others lowering their expectations for the child.
C) the belief that premature infants who survive are especially graced, and should be treated with deference and respect.
D) the idea that premature infants need to be "toughened up" so you should demand even more from them than a full-term infant.

Question 59

Which of the following statements about sudden infant syndrome (SIDS) is true?

A) It is the leading cause of death in infants between 1 month and 1 year of age.
B) The risk of an infant dying from SIDS increases the closer the infant gets to his or her first birthday.
C) We have been able to do nothing to reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome in the last 20 years.
D) Allowing infants to sleep on their tummies helps to reduce the risk of SIDS.

Question 60

Two important things that parents can do to reduce the risk of an infant dying from Sudden Infant Death Syndrome are to

A) eliminate gluten from the infant's diet and only use bottled water when making the baby's formula.
B) put the infant to sleep on his back and make sure the mother does not to smoke while pregnant or after the baby is born.
C) not allow the baby to sleep for more than 3 hours at a time and to not feed the baby after 6 p.m.
D) allow the baby to co-sleep in the parents' bed and keep the bedroom temperature above 80 degrees.

Question 61

The cause of many cases of premature births remains unknown.

Question 62

What symptoms may be exhibited in a father-to-be who experiences psychological couvade?

Question 63

Prenatal stimulation that goes beyond what is normally provided to a fetus has been shown to have a positive impact on the baby's later cognitive development.

Question 64

Female conceptions are more vulnerable during prenatal development than male conceptions.

Question 65

What are the three trimesters of pregnancy? Describe what many mothers experience during each trimester.

Question 66

Between 1991 and 2005 there has been little change in the percent of women who use alcohol while they are pregnant.

Question 67

Maternal smoking is the leading preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States.

Question 68

A fetus can experience pain, touch, smell and taste.

Question 69

Because herbal remedies are all natural, it is safe to use them during a pregnancy.

Question 70

A friend has decided to give birth at home. Tell her the pros and cons of making this choice.

Question 71

Describe the function of the placenta. What is filtered through to the fetus from the mother's blood?

Question 72

The testosterone level of a new father declines following the birth of his baby.

Question 73

In order to optimally support prenatal growth, a mother should consume _____ extra calories a day.

A) 100
B) 300
C) 500
D) 1000

Question 74

Cesarean sections are the most frequently performed surgical procedure in United States hospitals.

Question 75

What is a doula? What outcomes have been associated with the use of a doula during childbirth?

Question 76

The mother's blood crosses through the placenta to nourish the developing embryo.

Question 77

Name three teratogens and describe their possible effects on the developing fetus.

Question 78

Describe the three stages of prenatal development, including the number of days or weeks post-conception for each.

Question 79

What are the most common reasons for miscarriage?

Question 80

What are the three layers that form from the blastocyst and what does each layer become?