Deck 17: Blood and Blood Vessels

Question 1

Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?

A) RBCs
B) platelets
C) antibodies
D) lymphocytes
E) basophils

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The most abundant component of plasma is

A) ions.
B) proteins.
C) water.
D) gases.
E) nutrients.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is a function of the blood?

A) transport of nutrients and wastes
B) transport of body heat
C) transport of gases
D) defense against toxins and pathogens
E) all of the above

Answer 3

E

Question 4

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

A) viscosity.
B) specific gravity.
C) packed volume.
D) hematocrit.
E) differential cell count.

Question 5

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A) globulins.
B) transport proteins.
C) albumins.
D) lipoproteins.
E) fibrinogens.

Question 6

Which of the following is not a component of plasma?

A) electrolytes
B) platelets
C) fibrinogen
D) albumin
E) amino acids

Question 7

Which plasma protein is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure of plasma?

A) translipin
B) steroid-binding protein
C) hormone-binding protein
D) albumin
E) gamma globulin

Question 8

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood, and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume.

A) 55, 92
B) 92, 7
C) 92, 55
D) 45, 55
E) 50, 50

Question 9

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

A) 55 percent
B) 78 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 45 percent
E) 20 percent

Question 10

Platelets are

A) red cells that lack a nucleus.
B) blue cells that have a nucleus.
C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.
D) tiny cells with a polynucleus.
E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

Question 11

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

A) serum.
B) lymph.
C) whole blood.
D) extracellular fluid.
E) packed blood.

Question 12

Which of the following statements about blood is False ?

A) contains buffers that control pH
B) normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0
C) is more viscous than water
D) is about 55 percent plasma
E) None of the above is False ; all are True
)

Question 13

A hematocrit provides information on

A) blood type.
B) clotting factors.
C) formed elements abundance.
D) plasma composition.
E) sedimentation rate.

Question 14

The chief differences between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

A) concentration of water.
B) concentration of electrolytes.
C) concentration of nitrogen wastes.
D) concentration of proteins.
E) concentration of glucose.

Question 15

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

A) albumin alpha.
B) fibrinogen.
C) immunoglobulin A.
D) metalloprotein D.
E) lipoprotein C.

Question 16

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) metalloproteins.
E) lipoproteins.

Question 17

Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by

A) platelets.
B) megakaryocytes.
C) the liver.
D) the kidneys.
E) the spleen.

Question 18

The total volume of blood in the body of an adult male is approximately ________ liters.

A) 10
B) 6 to 8
C) 5 to 6
D) 4
E) 3

Question 19

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

A) pancreas
B) heart
C) kidney
D) brain
E) liver

Question 20

A typical adult hematocrit is around

A) 85.
B) 75.
C) 65.
D) 45.
E) 25.

Question 21

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A) excreted by the kidneys.
B) excreted by the liver.
C) excreted by the intestines.
D) recycled to the red bone marrow.
E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

Question 22

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

A) globin chains of hemoglobin.
B) heme molecules plus iron.
C) heme molecules lacking iron.
D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.
E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

Question 23

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.

A) Erythroblasts
B) Normoblasts
C) Myeloblasts
D) Band cells
E) Reticulocytes

Question 24

You are caring for a female adult patient who weighs 40 kg (90 lbs). Assuming no loss of blood, what would her approximate blood volume be?

A) 6.6 L
B) 6.0 L
C) 5.6 L
D) 1.8 L
E) 3.8 L

Question 25

The function of red blood cells is to

A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells.
B) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.
C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
D) defend the body against infectious organisms.
E) both carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells and carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells.

Question 26

All the circulating red blood cells originate in the

A) heart.
B) thymus.
C) spleen.
D) red bone marrow.
E) lymph tissue.

Question 27

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as

A) hemocytoblasts.
B) reticulocytes.
C) band forms.
D) myeloid cells.
E) proerythrocytes.

Question 28

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.
B) viscosity about the same as water.
C) pH of 7.4.
D) built-in system for clotting.
E) deep red color from hemoglobin.

Question 29

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is

A) albumin.
B) porphyrin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) immunoglobulin.
E) fibrinogen.

Question 30

The function of hemoglobin is to

A) carry oxygen.
B) defend against infection.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 31

Plasma is closest in composition to

A) urine.
B) isotonic saline solution.
C) sterile water.
D) CSF.
E) interstitial fluid.

Question 32

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is False ?

A) Red cells are biconcave discs.
B) Red cells lack mitochondria.
C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.
D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen.
E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

Question 33

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

A) magnesium.
B) calcium.
C) iron.
D) sodium.
E) copper.

Question 34

The average lifespan of a red blood cell is

A) 24 hours.
B) 1 month.
C) 4 months.
D) about 1 year.
E) many years.

Question 35

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport oxygen?

A) hemoglobin
B) ferritin
C) hemosiderin
D) transferrin
E) all of the above

Question 36

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that

A) she is suffering from anemia.
B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.
C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.
D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.
E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

Question 37

Each hemoglobin molecule contains

A) four alpha chains.
B) one alpha and one beta chain.
C) four iron atoms.
D) one heme group.
E) none of the above

Question 38

The process of red blood cell production is called

A) erythrocytosis.
B) erythropenia.
C) hemocytosis.
D) erythropoiesis.
E) hematopenia.

Question 39

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

A) the liver.
B) yellow bone marrow.
C) red bone marrow.
D) the spleen.
E) lymphoid tissue.

Question 40

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the

A) spleen.
B) liver.
C) bone marrow.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 41

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if

A) the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative.
B) both the father and the mother are Rh negative.
C) both the father and the mother are Rh positive.
D) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
E) an Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.

Question 42

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are

A) neutrophils.
B) basophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) monocytes.
E) leukocytes.

Question 43

Which of the following is not True of monocytes?

A) about same size as basophils
B) enter tissues and wander
C) become macrophages
D) are long lived
E) can phagocytize bacteria

Question 44

A person with Type A blood has

A) antigen A on the RBCs.
B) anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
C) anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells.
D) antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
E) anti-B antibodies in the plasma and anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells.

Question 45

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 46

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means

A) Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion.
B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood.
C) Bill is Rh negative.
D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies.
E) all of the above

Question 47

A person's blood type is determined largely by the

A) size of the RBCs.
B) volume of the RBCs.
C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.
D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
E) shape of the RBCs.

Question 48

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because

A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies.
C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies.
D) they usually have very strong immune systems.
E) they are usually Rh negative.

Question 49

Which of the following is True of basophils?

A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs
B) promote inflammation
C) granules contain histamine
D) contain dense blue stained granules in the Wright stain
E) all of the above

Question 50

The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from

A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.
B) extensive breakdown of RBCs.
C) destruction of hemoglobin.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 51

Which of these descriptions best matches the term eosinophils?

A) release histamine
B) become macrophages
C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins and produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals
E) often elevated in allergic individuals

Question 52

If bile ducts are blocked,

A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma.
B) bilirubin appears in the skin and eyes.
C) more hemolysis takes place.
D) more bilirubin appears in the plasma, and bilirubin appears in the skin and eyes.
E) all of the above

Question 53

After donating 0.5 liter of blood, one would expect

A) an increased reticulocyte count.
B) an increased platelet count.
C) an increased erythrocyte count.
D) an increased neutrophil count.
E) increased levels of clotting factors.

Question 54

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 55

All of the following are True of neutrophils, except that they are

A) granular leukocytes.
B) phagocytic.
C) round cells with lobed nuclei.
D) important in coagulation.
E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

Question 56

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) reticulocytes
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils

Question 57

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?

A) a person suffering from hemolysis
B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver
C) a person with an iron-deficient diet
D) a person suffering from hemolysis and an alcoholic with a damaged liver
E) all of the above

Question 58

White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 59

Which of these descriptions best matches the term lymphocytes?

A) release histamine
B) become macrophages
C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins
D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals
E) often elevated in allergic individuals

Question 60

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells.

A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes

Question 61

Which of these descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?

A) release histamine
B) antibodies are one type
C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation
D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals
E) often elevated in allergic individuals

Question 62

When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect

A) a drop in oxygen levels.
B) the release of erythropoietin.
C) a rise in hematocrit.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 63

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) reticulocytes.
E) thrombocytes.

Question 64

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme

A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme.
B) plasmin.
C) factor VIII.
D) thrombin.
E) prothrombinase.

Question 65

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.
E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

Question 66

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in

A) decreased iron absorption.
B) renal anemia.
C) increased erythropoiesis.
D) decreased erythropoiesis.
E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

Question 67

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

A) Vascular spasm
B) The platelet phase
C) Retraction
D) Coagulation
E) Fibrinolysis

Question 68

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when

A) oxygen levels in the blood increase.
B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease.
C) blood flow to the kidney declines.
D) oxygen levels in the blood increase and blood flow to the kidney declines.
E) oxygen levels in the blood decrease and blood flow to the kidney declines.

Question 69

The most abundant white blood cells are

A) NBCs.
B) plasma cells.
C) ABCs.
D) neutrophils.
E) monocytes.

Question 70

The process of lymphopoiesis goes on in all of the following organs, except

A) the spleen.
B) the kidney.
C) the lymph nodes.
D) the red bone marrow.
E) the thymus.

Question 71

Platelets function in all of the following, except

A) dissolving a formed clot.
B) forming temporary clump in injured areas.
C) contraction after clot formation.
D) initiating the clotting process.
E) releasing chemicals that stimulate clotting.

Question 72

Which of the following is not True of neutrophils?

A) less abundant than lymphocytes
B) can make cytotoxic chemicals
C) can exit capillaries
D) can destroy bacteria
E) produced in the bone marrow

Question 73

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

Question 74

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except

A) during anemia.
B) at high altitudes.
C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.
D) during periods of fasting.
E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

Question 75

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

A) thymosin.
B) angiotensin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) M-CSF.
E) renin.

Question 76

The pus associated with infected wounds contains

A) dead neutrophils.
B) cellular debris.
C) tissue fluids.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

Question 77

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called

A) erythroblasts.
B) normoblasts.
C) megakaryocytes.
D) myeloblasts.
E) lymphoblasts.

Question 78

Granulocytes form in

A) the intestines.
B) the spleen.
C) the thymus.
D) red bone marrow.
E) yellow bone marrow.

Question 79

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the

A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) thymus.
D) red bone marrow.
E) yellow bone marrow.

Question 80

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.