Deck 15: Spine

Question 1

The blocklike,anterior portion of a typical vertebra is called the:

A) pedicle.
B) lamina.
C) body.
D) articular process.

Answer 1

body.

Question 2

The region of the spine that contains seven vertebrae and has a lordotic curve is the:

A) cervical spine.
B) thoracic spine.
C) lumbar spine.
D) sacrum.

Answer 2

cervical spine.

Question 3

What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae?

A) Cervical vertebrae do not have articular processes.
B) Cervical vertebrae, with the exception of C7, do not have spinous processes.
C) Cervical vertebrae have special articular facets on the sides of the bodies.
D) Cervical vertebrae have a transverse foramen on each side of the body.

Answer 3

Cervical vertebrae have a transverse foramen on each side of the body.

Question 4

Which of the following join to form the posterior portion (vertebral arch)of a vertebra?

A) Transverse and spinous processes
B) Body and vertebral foramen
C) Transverse process and articular facet
D) Pedicle and lamina

Question 5

What is the name of the soft,inner layer of the intervertebral discs?

A) Annulus fibrosus
B) Nucleus fibrosis
C) Nucleus pulposus
D) Annular pulposus

Question 6

Which of the following is another name for C2?

A) Atlas
B) Axis
C) Vertebra prominens
D) Dens

Question 7

What is the name of the tough,outer layer of the intervertebral discs?

A) Annulus fibrosus
B) Scoliosis
C) Lordosis
D) Nuclear pulposus

Question 8

Which of the following are names of the regions of the spine?
1) Thoracic
2) Sacrum
3) Kyphosis

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 9

The toothlike projection from the superior surface of the body of the axis is called the:

A) demifacet.
B) anterior tubercle.
C) dens or odontoid process.
D) articular process.

Question 10

Which vertebra is also known as the axis?

A) C1
B) C2
C) C7
D) T7

Question 11

The vertebral arch is formed by the:

A) transverse and spinous processes.
B) articulations between inferior and superior articular facets.
C) pedicles and laminae.
D) vertebral notch and inferior articular processes.

Question 12

What is the odontoid process and where is it located?

A) A sharp process on the inferior surface of C1
B) A toothlike projection on the superior surface of C2
C) A rounded prominence on the posterior aspect of C7
D) A palpable landmark on the mandible

Question 13

What is the name of the most distal (or caudal)portion of the spine?

A) Lumbar
B) Thoracic
C) Coccyx
D) Sacrum

Question 14

The articular surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are called:

A) spinous processes.
B) laminae.
C) pedicles.
D) facets.

Question 15

What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae?

A) Cervical vertebrae have bifid spinous processes.
B) Cervical vertebrae do not have bodies.
C) Cervical vertebrae, with the exception of C7, do not have spinous processes.
D) Cervical vertebrae have special articular facets on the sides of the bodies.

Question 16

Which of the following is another name for C1?

A) Vertebra prominens
B) Cervical promontory
C) Axis
D) Atlas

Question 17

The opening in each vertebra that serves as the passage for the spinal canal is called the:

A) vertebral foramen.
B) intervertebral foramen.
C) vertebral arch.
D) body.

Question 18

How many vertebrae are located in the cervical region of the spine?

A) 5
B) 12
C) 7
D) 9

Question 19

The atlas is another name for:

A) C1.
B) C2.
C) T1.
D) L5.

Question 20

What structures serve as cushions in the anterior portion of the vertebral column?

A) Longitudinal ligaments
B) Facets
C) Articular processes
D) Intervertebral discs

Question 21

What is the rationale for using a 72-inch SID for the lateral projection of the cervical spine?

A) This SID enables the limited operator to use a lower kVp technique.
B) This SID reduces patient dose.
C) This SID helps to overcome the magnification caused by the increased OID of the position.
D) This SID provides more room for the limited operator to assist the patient into the proper position.

Question 22

When the patient is upright,the sagittal plane of the neck and head are parallel to the IR,and the central ray is directed perpendicular to C4,the resulting radiograph is a(n):

A) AP projection of the lower cervical spine.
B) PA oblique projection of the cervical spine.
C) AP projection of the upper cervical spine (open-mouth technique).
D) lateral projection of the cervical spine.

Question 23

When taking an AP axial projection of the cervical spine,the central ray is directed:

A) 15 degrees caudad.
B) 15 degrees cephalad.
C) 25 degrees caudad.
D) 25 degrees cephalad.

Question 24

Which portion of the spine is made up of five vertebrae and has a lordotic curve?

A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacrum

Question 25

When viewing an AP projection of the upper cervical spine (open-mouth technique),you notice that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error caused this?

A) The patient's neck was extended too much.
B) The patient's neck was flexed too much.
C) The patient's mouth was not open wide enough.
D) There is no positioning error in the image; this is the way the anatomy is supposed to be demonstrated.

Question 26

Which portion of the "Scottie dog" represents the pars interarticularis?

A) Ear
B) Front leg
C) Back leg
D) Neck

Question 27

Why should a cross-table (dorsal decubitus)lateral projection of the cervical spine be performed and evaluated by a physician before flexion and extension lateral projections are attempted?

A) To evaluate trauma to the cervical spine
B) To check for foreign bodies in the esophagus and/or trachea
C) To check for the proper exposure factors
D) To evaluate ligamentous injury

Question 28

What is the purpose of lateral projections of the cervical spine in flexion and extension positions?

A) To evaluate sprains and/or tears in the ligaments
B) To evaluate bony trauma
C) To evaluate intersegmental stability
D) To evaluate soft tissues

Question 29

What is the proper CR angle and direction for the PA oblique projections of the cervical spine?

A) 45 degrees cephalic
B) 45 degrees caudal
C) 15 degrees cephalic
D) 15 degrees caudal

Question 30

Which vertebrae have special facets for articulation with the ribs?

A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral

Question 31

What anatomical structures of the cervical spine are best demonstrated by the lateral projection?

A) Intervertebral discs
B) Intervertebral foramina
C) Zygapophyseal joints
D) Pedicles

Question 32

What is the proper CR angle and direction for the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine?

A) 15 degrees cephalic
B) 15 degrees caudal
C) 45 degrees cephalic
D) 45 degrees caudal

Question 33

On which projection of the spine is the "Scottie dog" configuration demonstrated?

A) Lateral projection of the cervical spine
B) Oblique projection of the thoracic spine
C) AP axial projection of the sacrum
D) Oblique projection of the lumbar spine

Question 34

What is the normal curve of the thoracic spine?

A) Lordotic
B) Scoliosis
C) Sciatic
D) Kyphotic

Question 35

What projection of the cervical spine should precede flexion and extension positions?

A) AP projection, open-mouth position of the upper cervical spine
B) Lateral projection of the cervical spine
C) AP axial projection of the cervical spine
D) Lateral projection of the skull

Question 36

The number of vertebrae in the normal lumbar spine is:

A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 7.
D) 8.

Question 37

Breathing technique is used to advantage when taking a lateral projection of the:

A) cervical spine.
B) thoracic spine.
C) lumbar spine.
D) sacrum.

Question 38

The front leg of the "Scottie dog" represents the:

A) pars interarticularis.
B) inferior articular process.
C) superior articular process.
D) pedicle.

Question 39

Which portion of the "Scottie dog" represents the superior articular process?

A) Ear
B) Front leg
C) Back leg
D) Neck

Question 40

How many vertebrae comprise the thoracic spine?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 12
D) 22

Question 41

Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the thoracic spine?

A) Perpendicular to T10
B) Perpendicular to T5
C) Perpendicular to T7
D) Perpendicular to C7

Question 42

What is the purpose of the positioning method used for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region?

A) The purpose is to demonstrate C7 without moving the patient to an upright lateral position.
B) The purpose is to demonstrate the clavicle in a lateral position.
C) The purpose is to provide more stability for the patient in the lateral position.
D) The purpose is to demonstrate the lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebrae between the two shoulders.

Question 43

Which of the following must be done to demonstrate the cervical intervertebral foramina on the patient's right side?
1) Position the patient in an LAO
2) Angle the CR 15 degrees caudal
3) Position the patient in an RAO

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 44

Where should the CR enter the patient for the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region?

A) Perpendicular to C4
B) Angled 15 degrees cephalic through the C7-T1 interspace
C) Perpendicular through the C7-T1 interspace
D) Angled 15 degrees cephalic, entering at C4

Question 45

When using a 35 × 43 cm IR,where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?

A) At the level of the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
B) At a level 1 inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
C) At the level of the sacrum along the coronal plane of the patient
D) This size IR is not appropriate for lumbar spine images

Question 46

Which projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina?

A) AP
B) PA
C) Lateral
D) AP oblique

Question 47

What is the proper patient position for an AP oblique projection of the cervical spine?

A) 45-degree posterior oblique position
B) 45-degree anterior oblique position
C) Coronal plane positioned parallel to the IR
D) Supine with base of skull aligned with edge of front teeth

Question 48

What anatomical structures are best demonstrated by the PA oblique projections of the cervical spine?

A) Zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR
B) Zygapophyseal joints farther from the IR
C) Intervertebral foramina closer to the IR
D) Intervertebral foramina farther from the IR

Question 49

The patient is positioned with the coronal plane of the body perpendicular to the IR,the midsagittal plane parallel to the IR,and the arm closest to the IR raised over the head. The CR is perpendicular and centered to the level of the C7-T1 interspace. What anatomy and projection are demonstrated on this image?

A) A lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region
B) An AP projection of the lower cervical spine
C) A lateral projection of the lower cervical spine
D) An AP projection of the cervicothoracic region

Question 50

What specific spine anatomy is demonstrated on a lateral projection of the lumbar spine?

A) Pedicles
B) Zygapophyseal joints
C) Lamina
D) Intervertebral foramina

Question 51

Which vertebrae should be included in the lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region?

A) C4 through T2
B) C3 through T1
C) C6 through T3
D) C7 through T2

Question 52

Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the lumbar spine?

A) At the level of the iliac crest, centered to the midsagittal plane
B) At the level of the xiphoid process of the sternum, centered to the midcoronal plane
C) At a level 1 inches above the iliac crest, centered to the midcoronal plane
D) The CR entrance point depends on the size of the IR

Question 53

Which of the following helps position the entire thoracic spine parallel to the IR when the patient is in a lateral recumbent position?

A) Radiolucent support under the head and neck
B) Radiolucent support under the shoulders and hips
C) Radiolucent support under the waist and/or hips
D) Radiolucent support between the knees

Question 54

What anatomical structures are best demonstrated by the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine?

A) Zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR
B) Zygapophyseal joints farther from the IR
C) Intervertebral foramina closer to the IR
D) Intervertebral foramina farther from the IR

Question 55

Which projection of the thoracic spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina?

A) AP projection
B) Lateral projection
C) AP oblique projection
D) PA oblique projection

Question 56

When using a 30 × 35 cm IR,where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?

A) At the level of the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
B) At a level 1 inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient
C) At the level of the sacrum along the coronal plane of the patient
D) This size IR is not appropriate for lumbar spine images

Question 57

For which of the following projections is it most important to consider the anode heel effect?

A) AP thoracic spine
B) PA oblique cervical spine
C) AP lumbar spine
D) Lateral lumbar spine

Question 58

What device may be used to improve visualization of the spinous processes of the thoracic spine on the lateral projection?

A) A piece of lead placed behind the shadow of the patient's back
B) A wedge filter placed with the thicker end on the upper thoracic spine
C) A sandbag placed near the patient's shoulders and another near the patient's hips
D) A positioning sponge used to elevate the patient's waist

Question 59

What positioning maneuver is used to improve patient comfort and reduce the lordotic curve of the lumbar spine when positioning a recumbent patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?

A) Raising the patient's arms above the head
B) Crossing the patient's arms across the chest
C) Flexing the knees and using a support under them
D) Having the patient distribute weight equally on both feet

Question 60

Which structures are seen on the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

A) C7 through L1
B) T3 through T12
C) C5 through T7
D) C6 through L2

Question 61

Where does the CR enter the patient on the AP oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints?

A) 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS
B) 1 inch lateral to the elevated ASIS
C) 1 inch medial to the ASIS closer to the IR
D) 1 inch lateral to the ASIS closer to the IR

Question 62

Where does the CR enter the patient on the PA oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints?

A) 1 inch lateral to the elevated ASIS
B) 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS
C) 1 inch lateral to the ASIS closer to the IR
D) 1 inch medial to the ASIS closer to the IR

Question 63

Which supplemental projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR?

A) AP
B) Lateral
C) Lateral lumbosacral joint
D) AP oblique

Question 64

What specific anatomy is best demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine if the patient is positioned in a 45-degree RPO position?

A) Right intervertebral foramina
B) Right zygapophyseal joints
C) Left intervertebral foramina
D) Left zygapophyseal joints

Question 65

Which of the following body positions demonstrates the left zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine?

A) Left lateral
B) 45 degrees RPO
C) 45 degrees LAO
D) 45 degrees LPO

Question 66

What is spondylosis?

A) Anterior displacement of one vertebra on another
B) Inflammation of a vertebra
C) Congenital fissure in a neural arch
D) Fixation or fusion of a vertebrae

Question 67

What is the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the sacrum?

A) 10 degrees cephalad
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 15 degrees cephalad
D) 15 degrees caudad

Question 68

Which pathology term applies to the anterior displacement of one vertebra on another?

A) Spondylosis
B) Spondylolisthesis
C) Spondylitis
D) Spondyloschisis

Question 69

Which sacroiliac joint is demonstrated when the patient is positioned in a 25- to 30-degree RPO position?

A) The right sacroiliac joint is demonstrated.
B) The left sacroiliac joint is demonstrated.
C) The sacroiliac joints cannot be demonstrated by this position.

Question 70

Which of the following patient positions demonstrates the left sacroiliac joint?

A) 25 to 30 degrees RPO
B) 25 to 30 degrees LPO
C) 10 to 15 degrees RAO
D) 10 to 15 degrees LAO

Question 71

What are the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the coccyx?

A) 10 degrees cephalad
B) 10 degrees caudad
C) 15 degrees cephalad
D) 15 degrees caudad

Question 72

Which region of the spine is the most common site of pathologic compression fracture of vertebral bodies caused by osteoporosis?

A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Coccyx

Question 73

Which of the following is the proper patient position to demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint?

A) 10 to 15 degrees RAO
B) 10 to 15 degrees LAO
C) 25 to 30 degrees RPO
D) 25 to 30 degrees LPO

Question 74

When the posterior neural arch of a single vertebra fails to close during early development and there is no other abnormality,the condition is known as:

A) spina bifida occulta.
B) meningomyelocele.
C) herniated nucleus pulposus.
D) stenosis.

Question 75

Which sacroiliac joint is demonstrated when the patient is positioned in a 25- to 30-degree RAO position?

A) The right sacroiliac joint is demonstrated.
B) The left sacroiliac joint is demonstrated.
C) The sacroiliac joints cannot be demonstrated by this position.

Question 76

Which of the following conditions is diagnosed by CT,MRI,or myelogram but is not normally seen on routine radiography?

A) Compression fracture
B) Spina bifida
C) Stenosis of the intervertebral foramina
D) Herniated nucleus pulposis

Question 77

A supine position with the central ray directed 15 degrees cephalic through the midpelvis is used to demonstrate an AP:

A) axial projection of the lumbosacral joint.
B) axial projection of the sacrum.
C) axial projection of the coccyx.
D) oblique projection of the sacroiliac joint.

Question 78

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called:

A) lordosis.
B) kyphosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) lamina.