Deck 1: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles

Question 1

Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A)Compact bone
B)Periosteum
C)Medullary cavity
D)Spongy or cancellous bone

Answer 1

Spongy or cancellous bone

Question 2

What type of tissue covers internal and external surfaces of the body?

A)Muscular
B)Connective
C)Nervous
D)Epithelial

Answer 2

Epithelial

Question 3

What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?

A)Epithelial
B)Connective
C)Muscular
D)Nervous

Answer 3

Connective

Question 4

How many individual body systems comprise the human body?

A)22
B)13
C)10
D)8

Question 5

Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste?

A)Circulatory
B)Respiratory
C)Urinary
D)Digestive

Question 6

The structural term for a freely movable joint is:

A)fibrous.
B)cartilaginous.
C)synovial.
D)gomphosis.

Question 7

How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?

A)181
B)215
C)206
D)236

Question 8

The lowest level of structural organization in the human body is the _____ level.

A)molecular
B)cellular
C)chemical
D)atomic

Question 9

What is the primary center for bone growth termed?

A)Epiphyses
B)Diaphysis
C)Metaphysis
D)Epiphyseal plate

Question 10

Which of the following bones is classified as a long bone?

A)Carpal bone
B)Scapula
C)Cranium
D)Humerus

Question 11

What is the name of the small oval-shaped bone found in tendons?

A)Wormian
B)Tendinous
C)Irregular
D)Sesamoid

Question 12

Which of the following systems of the human body includes all ductless glands of the body?

A)Endocrine
B)Integumentary
C)Muscular
D)Glandular

Question 13

Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?

A)Diaphysis
B)Epiphyses
C)Metaphysis
D)Articular cartilage

Question 14

How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton?

A)206
B)80
C)54
D)126

Question 15

Examples of "flat" bones are the:

A)calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum.
B)ribs, sternum, patella, and ilia of pelvis.
C)sternum, scapulae, ilia of pelvis, and base of cranium.
D)sternum and ilia of pelvis only.

Question 16

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

A)Radius
B)Hip bone
C)Clavicle
D)Sternum

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of joints?

A)Synarthrosis
B)Amphiarthrosis
C)Cartilaginous
D)Diarthrosis

Question 18

Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?

A)Vertebrae
B)Phalanges (toes)
C)Scapulae
D)Carpal (wrist bones)

Question 19

Which of the following body systems helps to regulate body temperature?

A)Circulatory
B)Urinary
C)Endocrine
D)Nervous

Question 20

What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?

A)Cancellous portion
B)Periosteum
C)Diploë
D)Medullary portion

Question 21

A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor.The central ray (CR) enters the right side of the body.What is this radiographic position?

A)Right lateral
B)Left lateral decubitus
C)Left lateral
D)Dorsal decubitus

Question 22

Which of the following is classified as a bicondylar joint?

A)Shoulder joint
B)Temporomandibular joint
C)First and second cervical vertebra joint
D)Distal radioulnar joint

Question 23

The vertical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves describes the _____ plane.

A)coronal
B)median or midsagittal
C)longitudinal
D)horizontal

Question 24

What type of projection is created with the CR directed along or parallel to the long axis of a structure or anatomic part?

A)Axial
B)Tangential
C)Lordotic
D)Transthoracic

Question 25

A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ plane.

A)midcoronal
B)midsagittal
C)horizontal
D)oblique

Question 26

Which of the following is classified as a saddle (sellar) joint?

A)Ankle joint
B)Temporomandibular joint
C)Knee joint
D)Intercarpal joint

Question 27

Which of the following joints is NOT a synovial joint?

A)Skull suture
B)Elbow joint
C)Hip joint
D)Proximal radioulnar joint

Question 28

A projection in which the CR skims a body part to project it in profile is termed:

A)tangential.
B)lordotic.
C)axial.
D)decubitus.

Question 29

A recumbent oblique position in which the patient is lying on the left anterior surface with it rotated toward the image receptor is termed:

A)right posterior oblique.
B)left posterior oblique.
C)Sims' position.
D)Fowler position.

Question 30

Which of the following terms describes the sole of the foot?

A)Palmar
B)Dorsum
C)Volar
D)Plantar

Question 31

A patient is lying on her back.The x-ray tube is horizontally directed with the CR entering the right side of the body.The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body.What is the radiographic position?

A)Left lateral decubitus
B)Left lateral
C)Right lateral decubitus
D)Dorsal decubitus

Question 32

A patient is erect facing the image receptor.The left side of the body is turned 45° toward the image receptor.The CR enters the posterior aspect of the body and exits the anterior.What is this radiographic position?

A)LAO
B)LPO
C)Left lateral
D)Posteroanterior (PA)

Question 33

What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)?

A)Axial
B)Trendelenburg
C)Decubitus
D)Lordotic

Question 34

Which of the following joints displays flexion and extension type of movement primarily?

A)Pivot
B)Ellipsoidal
C)Saddle
D)Ginglymus

Question 35

A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube.The right side of her body is turned 20° toward the image receptor.What is this radiographic position?

A)LPO (left posterior oblique)
B)RPO (right posterior oblique)
C)RAO (right anterior oblique)
D)LAO (left anterior oblique)

Question 36

A position in which the head is lower than the feet is:

A)Trendelenburg.
B)lithotomy.
C)Fowler.
D)recumbent.

Question 37

Which term describes lying down in any position?

A)Horizontal
B)Fowler
C)Recumbent
D)Anatomic

Question 38

An upright position with the arms abducted, palms forward, and head forward describes the _____ position.

A)anteroposterior (AP)
B)decubitus
C)anatomic
D)oblique

Question 39

A representation of the patient's anatomic structures that can be obtained, viewed, manipulated, and stored digitally is the definition for:

A)radiographic film.
B)radiography.
C)radiographic image.
D)radiographic examination.

Question 40

Which term describes the back or posterior aspect of the hand?

A)Dorsum pedis
B)Dorsum manus
C)Palmar
D)Volar

Question 41

Moving the foot and toes downward is:

A)eversion.
B)inversion.
C)dorsiflexion.
D)plantar flexion.

Question 42

What is the final step taken before making the exposure during a positioning routine?

A)Image receptor centering
B)Placing anatomic markers on image receptor
C)Ensuring correct gonadal shield placement
D)Collimation adjustments

Question 43

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur?

A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four

Question 44

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip?

A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four

Question 45

A patient is erect with the left side of his chest placed against the image receptor.The central ray enters the right side of the upper chest and exits the left.Which specific position has been performed?

A)Dorsal decubitus
B)Transthoracic lateral
C)Right lateral
D)Ventral decubitus

Question 46

Which of the following radiographic procedures often only requires a single AP projection be taken?

A)Finger
B)Ribs
C)Chest
D)Pelvis

Question 47

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a postreduction (to realign a fracture) study of the ankle?

A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four

Question 48

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a piece of wire in the palm of the hand.What is the minimum number of projections required to be taken for this radiographic study?

A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four or more

Question 49

The patient's head and neck are hyperextended with the top of the skull directly against the image receptor.The central ray enters just below the chin.Which specific projection has been performed?

A)Submentovertical
B)Acanthioparietal
C)Parietoacanthial
D)Verticosubmental

Question 50

The opposite term for supination is:

A)protraction.
B)adduction.
C)pronation.
D)retraction.

Question 51

Which of following is NOT one of the evaluation criteria applied in the evaluation of images?

A)Patient condition
B)Anatomy demonstrated
C)Collimation and CR
D)Exposure criteria

Question 52

A dorsoplantar projection would be a radiographic study of:

A)any anatomic region.
B)the hand.
C)the foot.
D)the skull.

Question 53

A patient is erect facing the x-ray tube and leaning the shoulders backward 20° to 30° toward the IR.The central ray is perpendicular to the IR.What specific position has been performed?

A)Lordotic
B)Oblique
C)Kyphotic
D)Tangential

Question 54

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the elbow?

A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four

Question 55

Movement in the form of a circle is the definition for:

A)rotation.
B)retraction.
C)circumduction.
D)protraction.

Question 56

The top of the foot is placed against the image receptor with the perpendicular central ray entering the sole of the foot.What specific projection has been performed?

A)Transpedal
B)Plantodorsal
C)Axial dorsoplantar
D)Tangential plantodorsal

Question 57

The patient is lying on her right side on a cart.The anterior surface of the patient is against the image receptor.A horizontal central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior surface of the body.What specific projection/position has been performed?

A)AP
B)PA
C)Right lateral decubitus
D)Left lateral decubitus

Question 58

The radiographic term projection is defined as:

A)general position of the patient.
B)path or direction of the central ray.
C)radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the image receptor.
D)computer-assisted image.

Question 59

Which of the following positions is often used to insert a rectal enema tip before a barium enema study?

A)Fowler
B)Modified Sims'
C)Lithotomy
D)Trendelenburg

Question 60

Which of the following terms is the opposite of ipsilateral?

A)Medial
B)Deviation
C)Contralateral
D)Axiolateral

Question 61

What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast in analog imaging?

A)kV
B)mA
C)Film-screen speed
D)SID

Question 62

Short scale contrast (in the analog image) is the result of:

A)scatter radiation.
B)collimation.
C)high kV.
D)low kV.

Question 63

Which of the following changes will improve spatial resolution?

A)Decrease SID.
B)Decrease OID.
C)Decrease kV.
D)None of the above will improve spatial resolution.

Question 64

Exposure time is usually expressed in units of:

A)seconds.
B)nanoseconds.
C)microseconds.
D)milliseconds.

Question 65

Increasing the SID to 48 inches (123 cm) from 40 inches (102 cm) and adjusting the mAs accordingly will:

A)increase penumbra.
B)along with the use of a small focal spot, decrease penumbra.
C)decrease patient skin dose but increase internal dose because of an increase in scatter radiation.
D)have no effect on image sharpness or on patient dose.

Question 66

The amount of blackness seen on a processed radiograph is called:

A)fog.
B)scatter.
C)contrast.
D)density.

Question 67

A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and nondiagnostic.The following analog (film-screen) exposure factors were used: 50 kV, 2 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID.Which of the following sets of exposure factors should be used during the repeat exposure?

A)50 kV, 8 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
B)50 kV, 1 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
C)60 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
D)50 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)

Question 68

Highly complex mathematical formulas applied during digital processing of the image are termed:

A)pixels.
B)algorithms.
C)digital filters.
D)matrices.

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT one of the four image quality factors of an analog radiograph?

A)Contrast
B)Spatial resolution
C)Source image receptor distance (SID)
D)Distortion

Question 70

What is the most effective method to reduce the production of scatter radiation?

A)Increase kV.
B)Increase mAs.
C)Collimate.
D)Use a grid.

Question 71

Each digital image is two dimensional and is formed by a matrix of:

A)bytes.
B)algorithms.
C)voxels.
D)pixels.

Question 72

A ____% increase in kV will increase density the same as doubling the mAs (analog imaging).

A)15
B)10
C)100
D)25

Question 73

The unsharp edge of the projected image is termed:

A)distortion.
B)penumbra.
C)edge loss.
D)margin distortion.

Question 74

Which of the following controlling factors will most affect radiographic resolution?

A)kV
B)mAs
C)Filtration
D)Focal spot size

Question 75

A radiograph of the abdomen is underexposed and must be repeated.The original analog exposure factors used were 65 kV with 25 mAs.The technologist decides to keep the mA at the same level but change the kV to increase radiographic density.How much of an increase is needed in kV to double the density?

A)3 to 5 kV
B)9 to 10 kV
C)10 to 15 kV
D)15 to 20 kV

Question 76

Which of the following radiographic studies would best benefit by applying the anode heel effect?

A)Hand
B)Skull
C)Thoracic spine
D)Ribs

Question 77

Which of the following devices can be used rather than applying the anode heel effect to compensate for anatomic part thickness differences?

A)Compensating filters
B)Copper filters
C)Graded screens
D)Added filtration

Question 78

What type of radiographic contrast is produced with a high (120) kV technique?

A)Low contrast, short scale
B)High contrast, short scale
C)Low contrast, long scale
D)High contrast, long scale

Question 79

A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion caused by bowel peristalsis (involuntary contractions).Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?

A)Decrease SID.
B)Turn patient into prone position rather than supine.
C)Use higher kV.
D)Decrease exposure time.

Question 80

Which of the following factors primarily controls radiographic density in the analog image?

A)kV
B)mAs
C)Film-screen speed
D)Optimal immunomodulating dose (OID)