Deck 12: Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System

Question 1

Which region of the biliary system is labeled 10?

A)Duct of Vater
B)Hepatopancreatic ampulla
C)Duct of Wirsung
D)Hepatopancreatic sphincter

Answer 1

Hepatopancreatic ampulla

Question 2

The average adult gallbladder is ____ cm long and ____ cm wide.

A)7 to 10; 3
B)4 to 6; 2
C)12 to 15; 5 to 6
D)2 to 3; 1

Answer 2

7 to 10; 3

Question 3

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

A)LLQ
B)RLQ
C)RUQ
D)LUQ

Answer 3

RUQ

Question 4

Which of the following functions are performed by the gallbladder?

A)Storage of bile
B)Concentration of bile
C)Contraction and release of bile
D)All of the above

Question 5

Which biliary structure is labeled 4?

A)Cystic duct
B)Common bile duct
C)Common hepatic duct
D)Right hepatic duct

Question 6

Where is bile formed?

A)Gallbladder
B)Duodenal mucosa
C)Liver
D)Pancreas

Question 7

"Chole-" is a prefix for terms pertaining to the:

A)gallbladder.
B)ducts.
C)bile.
D)liver.

Question 8

What is a primary function of cholecystokinin?

A)Serves as an enzyme to break down certain food nutrients
B)Stimulates the production of bile
C)Stimulates the gallbladder to contract
D)Inhibits the formation of gallstones.

Question 9

The liver is divided into ____ major and minor lobes.

A)three
B)four
C)two
D)six

Question 10

The main function of bile is to:

A)break down cholesterol.
B)emulsify fats.
C)begin the digestion of proteins.
D)begin the digestion of complex sugars.

Question 11

Where is cholecystokinin produced?

A)Duodenal mucosa
B)Liver
C)Gallbladder
D)Pancreas

Question 12

Which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1?

A)Neck
B)Fundus
C)Body
D)Apex

Question 13

What is an older term for the pancreatic duct?

A)Duct of Wirsung
B)Hepatopancreatic duct
C)Duct of Langerhans
D)Ampulla of Vater

Question 14

The liver secretes approximately ____ mL of bile per day.

A)100 to 250
B)500 to 700
C)800 to 1000
D)1200 to 1500

Question 15

Radiographic examination of the biliary ducts only is termed:

A)cholecystography.
B)cholangiography.
C)cholelithiasis.
D)cholecystocholangiography.

Question 16

What is an older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter?

A)Duodenal papilla
B)Sphincter of Vater
C)Duodenal sphincter
D)Sphincter of Oddi

Question 17

Which structure is labeled 9?

A)Pancreatic duct
B)Common bile duct
C)Cystic duct
D)Common hepatic duct

Question 18

Which aspect of the gallbladder is located most posterior within the abdomen?

A)Fundus
B)Body
C)Neck
D)Apex

Question 19

Which structure is labeled 6?

A)Cystic duct
B)Pancreatic duct
C)Right hepatic duct
D)Left hepatic duct

Question 20

What is the primary purpose of the membranous folds located within the cystic duct?

A)Produces cholecystokinin
B)Prevents gallstones from entering the gallbladder
C)Provides blood supply to the gallbladder
D)Prevents distention or collapse of the cystic duct

Question 21

The aortic arch and the _____ create a normal indentation seen along the lateral border of the esophagus.

A)pulmonary artery
B)left primary bronchus
C)pulmonary veins
D)superior vena cava

Question 22

Part iv refers to the:

A)laryngopharynx.
B)nasopharynx.
C)oropharynx.
D)posterior oral cavity.

Question 23

The dilated portion of the distal esophagus is termed the:

A)cardiac antrum.
B)cardiac notch.
C)fundus.
D)incisura cardiaca.

Question 24

Saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of:

A)starch.
B)minerals.
C)proteins.
D)lipids.

Question 25

Which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach?

A)Lesser curvature
B)Incisura angularis
C)Gastric border
D)Greater curvature

Question 26

Part v refers to the:

A)nasopharynx.
B)larynx.
C)oropharynx.
D)laryngopharynx.

Question 27

The esophagus is located ____ to the larynx.

A)anterior
B)posterior
C)inferior
D)proximal

Question 28

What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach?

A)Gastric canal
B)Valvulae conniventes
C)Haustra
D)Rugae

Question 29

The act of swallowing is termed:

A)mastication.
B)digestion.
C)deglutition.
D)aphasia.

Question 30

Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus?

A)Peristalsis and gravity
B)Peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation
C)Gravity and deglutition
D)Deglutition and mastication

Question 31

Which of the following is not a main subdivision of the stomach?

A)Fundus
B)Cardium
C)Pylorus
D)Body

Question 32

Part ii refers to the:

A)soft palate.
B)tonsils.
C)hard palate.
D)epiglottis.

Question 33

Part vii refers to the:

A)esophagus.
B)trachea.
C)spinal cord.
D)larynx.

Question 34

Part i refers to the:

A)nasal sinus.
B)maxillary sinus.
C)nasal cavity.
D)upper oral cavity.

Question 35

Part iii refers to the:

A)nasopharynx.
B)laryngopharynx.
C)oropharynx.
D)nasal cavity.

Question 36

Toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position?

A)Body and pylorus
B)Fundus
C)Cardiac
D)Fundus and body

Question 37

Part ix refers to the:

A)soft palate.
B)tonsils.
C)uvula.
D)epiglottis.

Question 38

Which of the following structures is not one of the salivary glands?

A)Parotid
B)Sublingual
C)Submandibular
D)All of the above are salivary glands.

Question 39

The opening between the stomach and esophagus is termed the:

A)cardiac antrum.
B)cardiac notch.
C)esophagogastric junction.
D)esophagocardiac junction.

Question 40

Which of the following structures is not considered to be an accessory organ of digestion?

A)Liver
B)Pancreas
C)Salivary glands
D)Kidneys

Question 41

Which part of the stomach is labeled 2?

A)Esophagogastric junction
B)Incisura angularis
C)Incisura cardiaca
D)Cardiac antrum

Question 42

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

A)Fundus
B)Body
C)Pylorus
D)Cardiac

Question 43

What type of solution is formed when barium is mixed with water?

A)Water-soluble solution
B)Isotonic solution
C)Hypotonic solution
D)Colloidal suspension

Question 44

Lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

A)stomach and small bowel.
B)stomach only.
C)small bowel only.
D)None of the above (are not digested).

Question 45

Enzymes that aid in chemical digestion are classified as:

A)lipids.
B)biologic catalysts.
C)digestive acids.
D)amino acids.

Question 46

Which part of the stomach is labeled 3?

A)Angular notch
B)Cardiac notch
C)Incisura angularis
D)Esophagogastric junction

Question 47

What structure indicates the junction between the duodenum and jejunum?

A)Duodenal cap
B)Suspensory muscle of the duodenum
C)Valvulae conniventes
D)C-loop of the duodenum

Question 48

What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media?

A)Radiopaque
B)Radiolucent
C)Isodense
D)Negative contrast media

Question 49

What type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach?

A)Double-contrast barium/negative contrast agent
B)Single-contrast barium sulfate
C)Water soluble
D)Radiolucent

Question 50

Which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap?

A)First (superior)
B)Third (horizontal)
C)Second (descending)
D)Fourth (ascending)

Question 51

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

A)hyposthenic
B)asthenic
C)sthenic
D)hypersthenic

Question 52

Which part of the stomach is labeled 9?

A)Cardiac notch
B)Angular notch
C)Pyloric orifice
D)Incisura cardiaca

Question 53

Which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the C-loop of the duodenum?

A)Tail
B)Body
C)Head
D)Neck

Question 54

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

A)bile.
B)lipids.
C)chyme.
D)biologic catalysts.

Question 55

A stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-2 would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

A)hyposthenic
B)asthenic
C)sthenic
D)hypersthenic

Question 56

Which of the following clinical indications would mandate the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast agent?

A)Patient with esophageal reflux
B)Patient with a bezoar
C)Patient with a possible perforated bowel
D)Patient with a possible peptic ulcer

Question 57

Which part of the stomach is labeled 6?

A)Body
B)Pyloric portion
C)Pyloric antrum
D)Pyloric canal

Question 58

Which aspect of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals?

A)Stomach
B)Small intestine
C)Large intestine
D)Pancreas

Question 59

Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?

A)It should be discarded if not used within an hour after mixing.
B)The patient may become ill if it is not prepared with sterile water.
C)It rarely produces an allergic reaction.
D)It is soluble in water.

Question 60

Which of the following substances are not digested chemically?

A)Minerals
B)Carbohydrates
C)Proteins
D)Lipids

Question 61

Which of the following technical factors will best enhance a digital image taken during an upper GI series?

A)Collimation
B)Low kV techniques
C)Long SID
D)Use of compensation (wedge) filter

Question 62

What is the most common radiographic procedure performed to diagnose GERD?

A)Endoscopy
B)Esophagogram
C)Upper GI series
D)CT

Question 63

Achalasia is generally defined as:

A)difficulty in swallowing.
B)a common malignancy of the esophagus.
C)motor disorder of the esophagus.
D)large outpouching of the esophagus.

Question 64

Research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by:

A)smoking.
B)bacteria.
C)alcohol.
D)antibiotics.

Question 65

What is a potential risk associated with the use of water-soluble contrast agents, especially for geriatric patients?

A)Bowel obstruction
B)Cardiac arrest
C)Dehydration
D)Shock

Question 66

Which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?

A)Time
B)Distance
C)Intensity
D)Shielding

Question 67

Which of the following devices reduces scatter exposure during fluoroscopy from the fluoroscopy tube?

A)Compression paddle
B)Bucky tray
C)Bucky slot cover
D)Lead gloves

Question 68

Why would a patient undergo Valsalva maneuver during an esophagogram?

A)To demonstrate possible esophageal varices
B)To demonstrate possible esophageal reflux
C)To demonstrate possible esophagitis
D)To demonstrate a possible bezoar

Question 69

Patient preparation for an esophagogram includes NPO _____ before the procedure.

A)4 to 6 hours
B)30 minutes to 1 hour
C)4 to 6 hours and no gum chewing or smoking
D)None of the above; patient preparation is not needed as long as an upper GI series is not scheduled to follow.

Question 70

Which of the following definitions would describe a bezoar?

A)Inflammation of the gastric lining
B)Outpouching of the stomach wall
C)Mass of undigested material
D)Stomach neoplasm

Question 71

Which of the following patient care concerns would prevent the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast medium?

A)The patient has a possible ulcer.
B)The patient is sensitive to iodine.
C)The patient has esophageal reflux.
D)The patient has dysphasia.

Question 72

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.).

A)0.25
B)0.5
C)0.75
D)1

Question 73

A large outpouching of the proximal esophagus above the upper esophageal sphincter is termed:

A)Barrett esophagus.
B)esophageal varices.
C)esophageal reflux.
D)Zenker diverticulum.

Question 74

Which of the following conditions is an example of GERD?

A)Esophageal varices
B)Gastric carcinoma
C)Esophageal reflux
D)Bezoar

Question 75

Which of the following conditions involves dilated veins in the distal aspect of the esophagus, which in some cases can lead to internal bleeding?

A)Esophageal varices
B)Esophageal reflux
C)Esophageal hypertension
D)Esophageal thrombosis

Question 76

Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?

A)Time
B)Distance
C)Intensity
D)Shielding

Question 77

Most esophagograms begin with the patient:

A)recumbent-supine.
B)erect.
C)recumbent-prone.
D)in a left lateral decubitus position.

Question 78

Which of the imaging modalities or procedures is most effective and preferred in diagnosing HPS?

A)Nuclear medicine
B)CT
C)Upper GI series
D)Ultrasound

Question 79

When using computed radiography (CR), inadequate kV or mAs will produce a ____ image.

A)dark
B)light
C)blurry
D)mottled

Question 80

Gastritis is defined as inflammation of the:

A)pancreas.
B)large intestine.
C)small intestine.
D)stomach.