Deck 13: Human Resource Management
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Deck 13: Human Resource Management
1
Lift-cam Inc.has an immediate need for accountants and does not have sufficient funds to invest in training.Hence,hiring for best existing qualifications,rather than the best person,should be preferred.
True
2
In an assessment center,applicants are evaluated while performing actual work tasks.
False
3
Person-organization fit is the extent to which an individual's values,interests,and behavior are consistent with the culture of his or her organization.
True
4
A job analysis lists the qualifications required of a job holder.
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5
The strategic role of HRM does not extend to supporting core values and corporate culture.
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6
The goal of human resource management is to support organizational performance by aligning people and their talents with organizational strategies and objectives.
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7
The use of bona fide occupational qualifications based on sex,religion,age,and national origin are not allowed under any circumstances.
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8
The critical-incident technique is a behavior-based approach that can reduce the influence of recency bias on evaluations.
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9
In contrast to straight bonuses,profit-sharing plans allow employees to share in cost savings or productivity gains realized by their efforts.
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10
Recruiting websites such as Monster and CareerBuilder are sources of internal recruits.
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11
Mentoring is a form of off-the-job training in which early-career employees are formally assigned as protégés to senior persons.
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12
360-degree appraisals may include self-evaluations by a job holder to identify strengths,weaknesses,and development needs.
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13
External recruitment brings outsider applicants with fresh perspectives,expertise,and work experience; but extra effort is needed to get reliable information on them.
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14
When orientation is weak or neglected,socialization largely takes place informally as newcomers learn about the organization and their jobs through casual interactions with coworkers.
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15
The evaluation purpose of performance appraisal focuses on future performance.
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16
Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when job decisions are made based on whether an employee submits to or rejects sexual advances.
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17
All trait-based performance appraisal methods tend to be very subjective and as a result,have relatively poor reliability and validity.
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18
Results-based performance measures may ignore the impact of circumstances beyond an employee's control,such as economic conditions or poor performance by someone else.
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19
If you are part of a merit pay system,your pay increases will be based on some assessment of how well you perform.
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20
Higher levels of early job satisfaction,greater trust in an organization,and less inclination to quit prematurely are among the expected benefits of traditional recruitment practices.
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21
Which of the following is true of conscientiousness?
A) Conscientious individuals pay less attention to the details of their jobs.
B) The job performance of conscientious individuals always tends to decrease over time.
C) Conscientiousness is the extent to which a person exhibits a high-Mach personality.
D) Conscientiousness decreases performance in training programs.
E) Conscientiousness improves the job knowledge of employees.
A) Conscientious individuals pay less attention to the details of their jobs.
B) The job performance of conscientious individuals always tends to decrease over time.
C) Conscientiousness is the extent to which a person exhibits a high-Mach personality.
D) Conscientiousness decreases performance in training programs.
E) Conscientiousness improves the job knowledge of employees.
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22
Labor unions are organizations to which employers belong and that deal with workers on the employers' behalf.
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23
The principle of employment-at-will gives employees the right to quit their job at any time for any reason.
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24
Affirmative action is the process through which labor and management representatives negotiate,administer,and interpret labor contracts.
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25
Which of the following is involved in the HRM task of developing a quality workforce?
A) Employee recruitment
B) Employee selection
C) Employee orientation
D) Retention and turnover
E) Compensation and benefits
A) Employee recruitment
B) Employee selection
C) Employee orientation
D) Retention and turnover
E) Compensation and benefits
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26
Employee benefits are monetary forms of compensation like travel costs and other reimbursements.
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27
The logic behind stock options is that the option holders will work hard so that their company performs well and they reap some of the financial benefits.
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28
_____ is a process of attracting,developing,and maintaining a talented work force.
A) Customer relationship management
B) Human resource management
C) Database management
D) Supply chain management
E) Enterprise feedback management
A) Customer relationship management
B) Human resource management
C) Database management
D) Supply chain management
E) Enterprise feedback management
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29
The potential benefits of early retirement incentive programs for employers are opportunities to lower payroll costs by reducing positions and replacing higher-wage workers with less expensive newer hires.
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30
Which of the following is an HRM job title?
A) Copywriter
B) Sales representative
C) Corporate recruiter
D) File clerk
E) Marketing manager
A) Copywriter
B) Sales representative
C) Corporate recruiter
D) File clerk
E) Marketing manager
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31
_____ is the economic value of people with job-relevant knowledge,skills,abilities,ideas,energies,and commitments.
A) Human capital
B) Operating capital
C) Risk capital
D) Venture capital
E) Financial capital
A) Human capital
B) Operating capital
C) Risk capital
D) Venture capital
E) Financial capital
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32
_____ is the degree to which an individual is achievement-oriented,careful,hard-working,organized,persevering,responsible,and thorough.
A) Veracity
B) Fecundity
C) Righteousness
D) Conscientiousness
E) Precariousness
A) Veracity
B) Fecundity
C) Righteousness
D) Conscientiousness
E) Precariousness
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33
_____ fit is the extent to which an individual's knowledge,skills,experiences,and personal characteristics are consistent with the requirements of their work.
A) Person-team
B) Person-job
C) Person-organization
D) Employer-person
E) Person-manager
A) Person-team
B) Person-job
C) Person-organization
D) Employer-person
E) Person-manager
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34
_____ fit is the extent to which an individual's values,interests,and behavior are consistent with the culture of his or her organization.
A) Manager-person
B) Person-team
C) Employer-organization
D) Person-job
E) Person-organization
A) Manager-person
B) Person-team
C) Employer-organization
D) Person-job
E) Person-organization
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35
Which of the following is involved in the HRM task of maintaining a quality workforce?
A) Employee selection
B) Training and development
C) Performance management
D) Labor-management relations
E) Employee recruitment
A) Employee selection
B) Training and development
C) Performance management
D) Labor-management relations
E) Employee recruitment
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36
Which of the following is true of people high on conscientiousness?
A) They tend to be laid back.
B) They are always overachievers.
C) They always feel guilty about taking breaks.
D) They are self-disciplined.
E) They are often procrastinators.
A) They tend to be laid back.
B) They are always overachievers.
C) They always feel guilty about taking breaks.
D) They are self-disciplined.
E) They are often procrastinators.
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37
Which of the following is involved in the HRM task of attracting a quality workforce?
A) Performance management
B) Career development
C) Human resource planning
D) Labor-management relations
E) Compensation and benefits
A) Performance management
B) Career development
C) Human resource planning
D) Labor-management relations
E) Compensation and benefits
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38
The purpose of _____ programs is to ensure that women and minorities are represented in the workforce in proportion to their labor market availability.
A) realistic recruiting
B) bona fide occupational qualifications
C) affirmative action
D) employee assistance
E) discriminative action
A) realistic recruiting
B) bona fide occupational qualifications
C) affirmative action
D) employee assistance
E) discriminative action
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39
HRM specialists within organizations deal with _____.
A) inventory management
B) quality assurance
C) publicity
D) customer feedback
E) employee relations
A) inventory management
B) quality assurance
C) publicity
D) customer feedback
E) employee relations
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40
The goal of human resource management is to _____.
A) maintain the files and databases of an organization
B) enhance organizational performance through the effective utilization of people
C) control the promotion and advertising expenditures
D) represent a business and sell its merchandise to customers in a store
E) maintain and audit all the business accounts of an organization
A) maintain the files and databases of an organization
B) enhance organizational performance through the effective utilization of people
C) control the promotion and advertising expenditures
D) represent a business and sell its merchandise to customers in a store
E) maintain and audit all the business accounts of an organization
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41
Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when _____.
A) an employee is deliberately provoked by mocking or teasing in an aggressive manner
B) an employee is playfully but not maliciously harassed
C) any unwelcome form of sexual conduct creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment
D) a job decision is made based on whether an employee submits to or rejects sexual advances
E) an employee is threatened with physical attack
A) an employee is deliberately provoked by mocking or teasing in an aggressive manner
B) an employee is playfully but not maliciously harassed
C) any unwelcome form of sexual conduct creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment
D) a job decision is made based on whether an employee submits to or rejects sexual advances
E) an employee is threatened with physical attack
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42
_____ is the orderly study of job facets to determine what is done when,where,how,why,and by whom.
A) Job analysis
B) Job description
C) Job specification
D) Job supervision
E) Job detailing
A) Job analysis
B) Job description
C) Job specification
D) Job supervision
E) Job detailing
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43
The information in a job analysis can be used to create _____,which list the qualifications required of a job holder.
A) job specifications
B) job descriptions
C) bona fide occupational qualifications
D) equal employment opportunities
E) job roles
A) job specifications
B) job descriptions
C) bona fide occupational qualifications
D) equal employment opportunities
E) job roles
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44
_____ is the process of choosing individuals to hire from a pool of qualified job applicants.
A) Orientation
B) Selection
C) Assignment
D) Promotion
E) Remuneration
A) Orientation
B) Selection
C) Assignment
D) Promotion
E) Remuneration
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45
_____ holds that persons performing jobs of similar importance should be paid at comparable levels.
A) Affirmative action
B) Equal employment opportunity
C) Merit pay
D) Comparable worth
E) Equality principle
A) Affirmative action
B) Equal employment opportunity
C) Merit pay
D) Comparable worth
E) Equality principle
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46
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination in all aspects of employment based on _____.
A) education
B) national origin
C) age
D) pregnancy
E) family matters
A) education
B) national origin
C) age
D) pregnancy
E) family matters
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47
Which of the following is true of realistic job previews?
A) It focuses on only communicating the most positive features of a job and organization to all applicants.
B) The negatives of a job are often downplayed or concealed.
C) It creates unrealistic expectations that cause costly turnover when new hires become disillusioned and quit.
D) Less inclination of employees to quit prematurely is an expected benefit of using realistic job previews.
E) Lower levels of early job satisfaction and lesser trust in organizations are the expected consequences of using realistic job previews.
A) It focuses on only communicating the most positive features of a job and organization to all applicants.
B) The negatives of a job are often downplayed or concealed.
C) It creates unrealistic expectations that cause costly turnover when new hires become disillusioned and quit.
D) Less inclination of employees to quit prematurely is an expected benefit of using realistic job previews.
E) Lower levels of early job satisfaction and lesser trust in organizations are the expected consequences of using realistic job previews.
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48
_____ is a set of activities designed to attract a qualified pool of job applicants to an organization.
A) Recruitment
B) Remuneration
C) Probation
D) Orientation
E) Training
A) Recruitment
B) Remuneration
C) Probation
D) Orientation
E) Training
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49
_____ occurs when someone is denied a job or a job assignment for reasons that are not job-relevant.
A) Discrimination
B) Domination
C) Acculturation
D) Affirmative action
E) Nepotism
A) Discrimination
B) Domination
C) Acculturation
D) Affirmative action
E) Nepotism
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50
Which of the following is a method of external recruitment?
A) Divisional transfers
B) Company electronic postings
C) Manager recommendations
D) Expatriation
E) Employee referrals
A) Divisional transfers
B) Company electronic postings
C) Manager recommendations
D) Expatriation
E) Employee referrals
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51
Which of the following is an advantage of external recruitment?
A) It is easier to get reliable information on applicants from outside an organization.
B) It brings outsider applicants with fresh perspectives, expertise, and work experience.
C) It is usually quicker and focuses on persons whose performance records are well known.
D) It reduces turnover rates.
E) It aids in the retention of high-quality employees.
A) It is easier to get reliable information on applicants from outside an organization.
B) It brings outsider applicants with fresh perspectives, expertise, and work experience.
C) It is usually quicker and focuses on persons whose performance records are well known.
D) It reduces turnover rates.
E) It aids in the retention of high-quality employees.
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52
Which of the following is true of traditional recruitment?
A) It focuses on communicating the positive and negative features of a job.
B) The negatives of a job are always clearly revealed and not downplayed or concealed.
C) It leads to higher levels of early job satisfaction and greater trust in an organization.
D) Employers could suffer lost productivity and the added costs of having to recruit again.
E) New employees always have less inclination to quit prematurely.
A) It focuses on communicating the positive and negative features of a job.
B) The negatives of a job are always clearly revealed and not downplayed or concealed.
C) It leads to higher levels of early job satisfaction and greater trust in an organization.
D) Employers could suffer lost productivity and the added costs of having to recruit again.
E) New employees always have less inclination to quit prematurely.
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53
Which of the following is true of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?
A) It allows employees to lie about their age to their employers.
B) It does not outlaw discrimination in hiring and promotion.
C) It requires employers to provide specialized accommodations for aged employees.
D) It allows statements in job notices or advertisements of age preference and limitations.
E) It restricts mandatory retirement ages in most employment sectors.
A) It allows employees to lie about their age to their employers.
B) It does not outlaw discrimination in hiring and promotion.
C) It requires employers to provide specialized accommodations for aged employees.
D) It allows statements in job notices or advertisements of age preference and limitations.
E) It restricts mandatory retirement ages in most employment sectors.
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54
Which of the following is the final step of the recruitment process?
A) Personal interview
B) Behavioral interview
C) Preliminary contact with potential job candidates
D) Initial screening to create a pool of qualified applicants
E) Employment test
A) Personal interview
B) Behavioral interview
C) Preliminary contact with potential job candidates
D) Initial screening to create a pool of qualified applicants
E) Employment test
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55
Which of the following is a method of internal recruitment?
A) Recruiting websites
B) Virtual job fairs
C) Managers' recommendations
D) Employment agencies
E) Headhunters
A) Recruiting websites
B) Virtual job fairs
C) Managers' recommendations
D) Employment agencies
E) Headhunters
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56
The use of bona fide occupational qualifications based on _____ is not allowed under any circumstances.
A) sex
B) religion
C) age
D) national origin
E) race
A) sex
B) religion
C) age
D) national origin
E) race
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57
All male mechanics at a local garage are paid $50 per day.However,Sally,the sole female employee with the same job role is paid $30.Sally demands that she be paid the same wages as her male counterparts,as she performs the same jobs.Sally's demand is based on the idea of_____.
A) permatemp
B) comparable worth
C) base compensation
D) recency bias
E) critical-incident technique
A) permatemp
B) comparable worth
C) base compensation
D) recency bias
E) critical-incident technique
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58
Which of the following is the first step in a typical recruitment process?
A) Preliminary contact with potential job candidates
B) Face-to-face interview
C) Advertisement of a job vacancy
D) Initial screening to create a pool of qualified applicants
E) Employment test
A) Preliminary contact with potential job candidates
B) Face-to-face interview
C) Advertisement of a job vacancy
D) Initial screening to create a pool of qualified applicants
E) Employment test
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59
A job _____ details the duties and responsibilities of a job holder.
A) specification
B) description
C) analysis
D) evaluation
E) supervision
A) specification
B) description
C) analysis
D) evaluation
E) supervision
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60
_____ are hired as needed and are not part of an organization's permanent workforce.
A) Part-time workers
B) Frontline staff
C) Independent contractors
D) Flextime employees
E) Line managers
A) Part-time workers
B) Frontline staff
C) Independent contractors
D) Flextime employees
E) Line managers
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61
In _____,companies ask applicants to do actual job tasks while being graded by observers on their performance.
A) situational interviews
B) assessment centers
C) cognitive interviews
D) psychiatric interviews
E) work sampling
A) situational interviews
B) assessment centers
C) cognitive interviews
D) psychiatric interviews
E) work sampling
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62
The _____ of a selection technique refers to the consistency of results provided by the selection device.
A) validity
B) accountability
C) compatibility
D) reliability
E) sensitivity
A) validity
B) accountability
C) compatibility
D) reliability
E) sensitivity
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63
_____ is a common approach of on-the-job training where people are allowed to spend time working in different jobs or departments or even geographical locations,and thus expand the range of their job capabilities.
A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Socialization
D) Orientation
E) Job rotation
A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Socialization
D) Orientation
E) Job rotation
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64
Biodata methods:
A) collect certain personal information that has been proven to correlate with good job performance.
B) examine how job candidates handle simulated work situations.
C) evaluate applicants while performing actual work tasks.
D) ask job candidates about their past behavior, focusing specifically on actions that are likely to be important in a work environment.
E) ask job candidates how they would react when confronted with specific work situations they would be likely to experience on the job.
A) collect certain personal information that has been proven to correlate with good job performance.
B) examine how job candidates handle simulated work situations.
C) evaluate applicants while performing actual work tasks.
D) ask job candidates about their past behavior, focusing specifically on actions that are likely to be important in a work environment.
E) ask job candidates how they would react when confronted with specific work situations they would be likely to experience on the job.
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65
In _____ interviews,the interviewer does not work from a formal and pre-established list of questions that is asked of all interviewees.
A) structured
B) high validity
C) standardized
D) unstructured
E) closed
A) structured
B) high validity
C) standardized
D) unstructured
E) closed
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66
The traditional_____ is the most common method of assessment in selection processes.
A) assessment test
B) face-to-face interview
C) work sample
D) telephone interview
E) virtual interview
A) assessment test
B) face-to-face interview
C) work sample
D) telephone interview
E) virtual interview
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67
A graphic rating scale _____.
A) uses specific descriptions of actual behaviors to rate various levels of performance
B) uses a checklist of traits or characteristics to evaluate performance
C) keeps a log of someone's effective and ineffective job behaviors
D) is a slow and difficult approach for performance evaluation
E) is very objective and has relatively high reliability and validity
A) uses specific descriptions of actual behaviors to rate various levels of performance
B) uses a checklist of traits or characteristics to evaluate performance
C) keeps a log of someone's effective and ineffective job behaviors
D) is a slow and difficult approach for performance evaluation
E) is very objective and has relatively high reliability and validity
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68
_____ is the process of formally assessing the work accomplishments and providing feedback to an employee.
A) Promotion
B) Orientation
C) Work sampling
D) Training
E) Performance appraisal
A) Promotion
B) Orientation
C) Work sampling
D) Training
E) Performance appraisal
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69
Which of the following is an example of off-the-job training methods?
A) Job rotation
B) Coaching
C) Temporary promotions
D) Mentoring
E) Management development
A) Job rotation
B) Coaching
C) Temporary promotions
D) Mentoring
E) Management development
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70
Which of the following is required for performance appraisal methods to be reliable and valid?
A) They should yield different results over time.
B) They should yield different results for different raters.
C) They should not measure factors indirectly relevant to job performance.
D) They should be biased against poor performers.
E) They should measure all factors directly and indirectly relevant to job performance.
A) They should yield different results over time.
B) They should yield different results for different raters.
C) They should not measure factors indirectly relevant to job performance.
D) They should be biased against poor performers.
E) They should measure all factors directly and indirectly relevant to job performance.
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71
_____ is an approach that focuses on providing employees with more frequent and more developmental feedback in an effort to improve their job performance.
A) Performance coaching
B) Performance evaluation
C) Job orientation
D) Job evaluation
E) Remuneration
A) Performance coaching
B) Performance evaluation
C) Job orientation
D) Job evaluation
E) Remuneration
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72
In an interview,an interviewer asks a candidate,"Describe a situation in which you disagreed with your superior and how you resolved that situation." This is an example of a(n)_____ interview.
A) exit
B) reference
C) technical
D) closed
E) behavioral
A) exit
B) reference
C) technical
D) closed
E) behavioral
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73
The _____ purpose of performance assessment focuses on past performance and measures results against standards.
A) interviewing
B) training
C) sampling
D) evaluation
E) selection
A) interviewing
B) training
C) sampling
D) evaluation
E) selection
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74
_____ is a form of coaching in which early-career employees are formally assigned as protégés to senior persons.
A) Job rotation
B) Orientation
C) Mentoring
D) Conditioning
E) Inducting
A) Job rotation
B) Orientation
C) Mentoring
D) Conditioning
E) Inducting
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75
In a face-to-face interview with a manager,a candidate is asked how he would dismiss a group of employees during a lay-off if he was the HR manager.This would be an example of a(n)_____ interview.
A) situational
B) cognitive
C) psychiatric
D) technical
E) informal
A) situational
B) cognitive
C) psychiatric
D) technical
E) informal
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76
Which of the following performance appraisal methods uses specific descriptions of actual behaviors to rate various levels of performance?
A) Graphic rating scale
B) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
C) 360-degree appraisal
D) Multiperson comparison
E) Critical-incident technique
A) Graphic rating scale
B) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
C) 360-degree appraisal
D) Multiperson comparison
E) Critical-incident technique
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77
_____ means that scores on a selection device have demonstrated links with future job performance.
A) Compatibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Equity
E) Accountability
A) Compatibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Equity
E) Accountability
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78
Which of the following is the first step of a selection process?
A) Interview
B) Screening applicant information
C) Site visit
D) Pre-employment check
E) Employment testing
A) Interview
B) Screening applicant information
C) Site visit
D) Pre-employment check
E) Employment testing
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79
_____ refers to a set of activities designed to familiarize new employees with their jobs,coworkers,and key aspects of the organization as a whole.
A) Training
B) Orientation
C) Recruiting
D) Selection
E) Development
A) Training
B) Orientation
C) Recruiting
D) Selection
E) Development
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80
_____ is a set of activities that helps people acquire and improve job-related skills.
A) Interviewing
B) Sampling
C) Recruitment
D) Training
E) Selection
A) Interviewing
B) Sampling
C) Recruitment
D) Training
E) Selection
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k this deck