Deck 44: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Deck 44: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
1
Lumbar puncture to collect CSF does not necessarily have to be performed as a sterile procedure.
False
2
A patient with a spinal cord injury that resulted in complete transection of the cord and paraplegia can still walk with assistance.
False
3
A concussion is a much more serious injury to the brain than a contusion.
False
4
Coumadin or heparin would be prescribed for a patient who has been diagnosed with TIAs.
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5
Paresthesia is the abnormal feeling of burning or stinging that accompanies nerve compression.
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6
CSF circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the epidural space.
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7
Bell's palsy is a sudden paralysis of the tenth cranial nerve.
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8
A positive Brudzinski's sign is indicative of meningitis.
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9
To prevent neurologic damage, thrombolytic drugs should be administered as quickly as possible to a patient who has been diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke.
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10
The parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate, constricts the bronchioles, and increases digestive system function.
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11
Encephalitis occurs because of a severe bacterial infection.
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12
Aricept is used to treat Alzheimer's disease.
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13
Zomig and Topamax have proved useful for patients suffering from Parkinson's disease.
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14
The ANS is responsible for both vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
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15
A subdural hematoma causes a rapid increase in intracranial pressure with paralysis and memory loss.
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16
In its embryonic stage, the CNS begins as the neural tube.
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17
Stimuli are carried to the brain from the periphery along the efferent neurologic tract.
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18
A type of neuroglial cell creates the myelin sheath that protects the axon of the neuron.
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19
Patients who experience TIAs have temporary symptoms, because the tissue ischemia is short-lived.
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20
A primary symptom of meningitis is a stiff neck.
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21
Repetitive movements may result in compression of the median nerve, producing numbness and tingling of the fingers.
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22
A patient with hemiplegia has this type of paralysis because of a CVA.
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23
Patients who suffer from migraine headaches frequently experience an aura before the onset of pain.
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24
An elderly patient with signs and symptoms of dementia is going through the normal phases of aging.
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25
A patient diagnosed with encephalitis will be admitted to the hospital and immediately placed on IV antibiotics.
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26
Multiple minor CVAs can result in symptoms of dementia.
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27
MS is diagnosed most frequently in the southern U.S.states, and adolescent females are affected most often.
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28
Dysthymic disorders are a severe type of major depression.
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29
A child who has a febrile seizure is diagnosed with epilepsy.
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30
A subarachnoid hemorrhage results in rapid changes in neurologic status, along with severe projectile vomiting, motor disturbances, visual disturbances, and seizures.
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31
Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
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32
MS is caused by progressive demyelination of the covering on the axon of the neuron.
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33
A person experiencing a petit mal seizure has extended episodes (10 to 15 minutes) of staring into space without awareness of the surroundings.
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34
During a grand mal seizure, the patient goes though a tonic phase of muscle twitching and jerking, followed by a clonic phase of generalized stiff muscles.
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35
The signs and symptoms of a brain tumor occur because of increased intracranial pressure.
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36
Antidepressant medications relieve the incapacitating symptoms of major depression within 10 to 14 days.
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37
Patients with peripheral neuropathy may complain of episodes of vertigo and syncope.
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38
Violently shaking a baby is so dangerous because of babies undeveloped neck muscles.
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39
Bipolar disorders are also called mood disorders in which patients go through cycles of extreme highs and extreme lows.
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40
ALS can be cured if it is diagnosed early enough.
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41
Which statement is not true of TIAs?
A)They result from short-term ischemic episodes.
B)They may be precursors to a CVA.
C)They cause permanent neurologic dysfunction.
D)They indicate the need for comprehensive diagnostic evaluation.
A)They result from short-term ischemic episodes.
B)They may be precursors to a CVA.
C)They cause permanent neurologic dysfunction.
D)They indicate the need for comprehensive diagnostic evaluation.
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42
If a patient describes seeing an aura before the onset of a severe headache, this often is a sign of a(n):
A)future CVA
B)migraine headache
C)epilepsy
D)brain tumor
A)future CVA
B)migraine headache
C)epilepsy
D)brain tumor
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43
Risperdal is an effective treatment for patients with schizophrenia.
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44
In what way does the medical assistant contribute most to the diagnosis of neurologic disorders?
A)Conducting diagnostic tests
B)Careful observation of and listening to patients
C)Positioning patients for neurologic examinations
D)Providing patient instruction
A)Conducting diagnostic tests
B)Careful observation of and listening to patients
C)Positioning patients for neurologic examinations
D)Providing patient instruction
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45
Which of the following means "inflammation of the covering of the brain"?
A)Meningitis
B)Poliomyelitis
C)Meningocele
D)Meningomyelitis
A)Meningitis
B)Poliomyelitis
C)Meningocele
D)Meningomyelitis
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46
A patient suffering from delirium:
A)cannot be awakened from an unconscious state
B)is suffering from mental illness
C)is temporarily unable to connect with the environment
D)is in danger of suffering permanent brain damage
A)cannot be awakened from an unconscious state
B)is suffering from mental illness
C)is temporarily unable to connect with the environment
D)is in danger of suffering permanent brain damage
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47
A patient calls to report symptoms that are commonly associated with the flu.However, he has not improved after 2 weeks of rest, so he may have:
A)ALS
B)CVA
C)encephalitis
D)MS
A)ALS
B)CVA
C)encephalitis
D)MS
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48
Xanax is commonly prescribed for patients with mild to moderate depression.
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49
Which statement is not true of an absence or petit mal seizure?
A)It causes a momentary loss of contact with reality.
B)It may occur without others being aware of it.
C)It can be treated with Dilantin or Tegretol.
D)It has a clonic-tonic phase.
A)It causes a momentary loss of contact with reality.
B)It may occur without others being aware of it.
C)It can be treated with Dilantin or Tegretol.
D)It has a clonic-tonic phase.
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50
Which of the following is not a common reason for failure to diagnose many neurologic problems in the early stages?
A)Society has stigmatized those with neurologic disorders.
B)Patients may be unaware of their symptoms.
C)The symptoms may occur in seemingly unrelated parts of the body.
D)Fewer diagnostic procedures are available for the neurologic system than for other body systems.
A)Society has stigmatized those with neurologic disorders.
B)Patients may be unaware of their symptoms.
C)The symptoms may occur in seemingly unrelated parts of the body.
D)Fewer diagnostic procedures are available for the neurologic system than for other body systems.
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51
Cognex and Aricept are used to treat:
A)CVA
B)epilepsy
C)Alzheimer's disease
D)migraine headaches
A)CVA
B)epilepsy
C)Alzheimer's disease
D)migraine headaches
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52
A phobia is an intense fear of something that is truly dangerous.
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53
To which part of the nervous system do the cranial nerves belong?
A)Autonomic
B)Central
C)Parasympathetic
D)Peripheral
A)Autonomic
B)Central
C)Parasympathetic
D)Peripheral
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54
The point on a nerve cell where stimuli are passed to the adjacent nerve cell is called the:
A)axon
B)dendrite
C)nucleus
D)synapse
A)axon
B)dendrite
C)nucleus
D)synapse
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55
The medical term that means "a condition of difficulty speaking" is:
A)dysphasia
B)dysphagia
C)bradyphagia
D)bradyphasia
A)dysphasia
B)dysphagia
C)bradyphagia
D)bradyphasia
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56
Which of the following words means "pertaining to the head and to the tail?"
A)Anterolateral
B)Dorsocephalad
C)Cephalocaudal
D)Anteroposterior
A)Anterolateral
B)Dorsocephalad
C)Cephalocaudal
D)Anteroposterior
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57
For which neurologic disorder should patients with hypertension and an elevated cholesterol level be monitored?
A)CVA
B)Brain tumors
C)Migraines
D)ALS
A)CVA
B)Brain tumors
C)Migraines
D)ALS
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58
A lumbar puncture often is performed to determine the CSF pressure.
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59
The tough outer layer of the meninges is the:
A)pia mater
B)arachnoid layer
C)subdural space
D)dura mater
A)pia mater
B)arachnoid layer
C)subdural space
D)dura mater
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60
Which condition is not usually associated with injuries caused by accidents?
A)Hemiplegia
B)Cerebral concussion
C)Quadriplegia
D)Paraplegia
A)Hemiplegia
B)Cerebral concussion
C)Quadriplegia
D)Paraplegia
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61
Which statement is true about hydrocephalus?
A)It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B)Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C)A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D)Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.
A)It can be diagnosed and treated in utero.
B)Enlargement of the infant's skull is limited, because the skull bones are fused at birth.
C)A shunt must be implanted surgically as soon as possible after birth.
D)Brain damage can be reversed if a shunt is placed surgically immediately after birth.
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62
Patients diagnosed with grand mal seizures may be treated with which of the following medications?
A)Neurontin
B)Cognex
C)Lamictal
D)A and C
A)Neurontin
B)Cognex
C)Lamictal
D)A and C
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63
A subdural hematoma is more likely to occur in which patient?
A)A 2-year-old who trips going down the steps
B)A 28-year-old athlete
C)A high school student playing touch football
D)An elderly patient who falls
A)A 2-year-old who trips going down the steps
B)A 28-year-old athlete
C)A high school student playing touch football
D)An elderly patient who falls
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64
A patient with quadriplegia suffers from spinal cord transection in what location?
A)Lumbar region
B)Lower thoracic area
C)Coccygeal area
D)Cervical region
A)Lumbar region
B)Lower thoracic area
C)Coccygeal area
D)Cervical region
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65
The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses patient responses in what three areas?
A)The ability to open the eyes, move the arms and legs, and verbalize responses
B)The ability to describe pain, move the head, and make sounds
C)The ability to respond to commands, walk a straight line, and swallow fluids
D)The ability to recognize family members, remember the alphabet, and draw a straight line
A)The ability to open the eyes, move the arms and legs, and verbalize responses
B)The ability to describe pain, move the head, and make sounds
C)The ability to respond to commands, walk a straight line, and swallow fluids
D)The ability to recognize family members, remember the alphabet, and draw a straight line
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66
Which statement is not true about brain tumors?
A)They are always primary tumors.
B)They may be a secondary growth from a tumor located elsewhere in the body.
C)Benign tumors can be fatal.
D)An eye exam reveals papilledema.
A)They are always primary tumors.
B)They may be a secondary growth from a tumor located elsewhere in the body.
C)Benign tumors can be fatal.
D)An eye exam reveals papilledema.
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67
What diagnostic studies might the physician order for a patient suspected of having a brain tumor?
A)Ophthalmoscopic examination
B)CT scan
C)EEG
D)A and B
A)Ophthalmoscopic examination
B)CT scan
C)EEG
D)A and B
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68
Which statement is true about a positive Brudzinski's sign?
A)It is an assessment performed to diagnose encephalitis.
B)With a positive sign, pain prevents straightening of a flexed leg.
C)The patient spontaneously flexes the arm, hip, and knee in response to neck flexion.
D)Both A and C are true.
E)All of the above are true.
A)It is an assessment performed to diagnose encephalitis.
B)With a positive sign, pain prevents straightening of a flexed leg.
C)The patient spontaneously flexes the arm, hip, and knee in response to neck flexion.
D)Both A and C are true.
E)All of the above are true.
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69
Treatment of MS includes:
A)Requip
B)Interferon injections
C)Mirapex
D)Solu-Medrol
A)Requip
B)Interferon injections
C)Mirapex
D)Solu-Medrol
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70
The anatomic feature of the cerebrum that greatly increases its surface area is the:
A)gyri
B)hemispheres
C)ventricles
D)sulci
A)gyri
B)hemispheres
C)ventricles
D)sulci
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71
Parkinson's disease:
A)affects men more often than women
B)is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine
C)is progressive and has no cure
D)all of the above
E)B and C
A)affects men more often than women
B)is caused by a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine
C)is progressive and has no cure
D)all of the above
E)B and C
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72
Among the primary symptoms of Parkinson's disease is/are:
A)difficulty swallowing
B)a masklike facial expression
C)ataxia
D)A and B
E)all of the above
A)difficulty swallowing
B)a masklike facial expression
C)ataxia
D)A and B
E)all of the above
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73
Which statement is not true of multiple sclerosis?
A)Symptoms can be controlled with Rilutek.
B)It causes a wide range of neurologic problems.
C)It is a progressive neurologic disorder without a known cure.
D)Patients with MS have a repeated cycle of exacerbation of symptoms and remission.
A)Symptoms can be controlled with Rilutek.
B)It causes a wide range of neurologic problems.
C)It is a progressive neurologic disorder without a known cure.
D)Patients with MS have a repeated cycle of exacerbation of symptoms and remission.
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74
The hypothalamus is located in which part of the CNS?
A)Brainstem
B)Cerebellum
C)Diencephalon
D)B and C
A)Brainstem
B)Cerebellum
C)Diencephalon
D)B and C
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75
Which statement is not true of ALS?
A)It is a progressive neurologic disease that results in muscle atrophy.
B)Death usually occurs because of respiratory failure.
C)It occurs most frequently in women in their 30s.
D)The cause is unknown.
A)It is a progressive neurologic disease that results in muscle atrophy.
B)Death usually occurs because of respiratory failure.
C)It occurs most frequently in women in their 30s.
D)The cause is unknown.
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76
Which statement is true about the treatment of major depression?
A)Patients can wean themselves off the medication as soon as they start to feel better.
B)The preferred route of administration is sl.
C)Treatment must be continued for at least 4 to 9 months.
D)If the patient is taking antidepressants as prescribed, the family does not have to worry about suicidal tendencies.
A)Patients can wean themselves off the medication as soon as they start to feel better.
B)The preferred route of administration is sl.
C)Treatment must be continued for at least 4 to 9 months.
D)If the patient is taking antidepressants as prescribed, the family does not have to worry about suicidal tendencies.
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77
The cerebellum is responsible for:
A)controlling the autonomic nervous system
B)balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination
C)coordinating reflexes
D)verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking)
A)controlling the autonomic nervous system
B)balance, equilibrium, posture, and muscle coordination
C)coordinating reflexes
D)verbal functions (e.g., reading, writing, speaking)
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78
The function of the sympathetic nervous system is to:
A)increase blood glucose levels and blood pressure
B)reducing peristalsis
C)cause bronchodilation
D)all of the above
A)increase blood glucose levels and blood pressure
B)reducing peristalsis
C)cause bronchodilation
D)all of the above
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79
Peripheral neuropathy is frequently seen in patients with what other health problem?
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Diabetes mellitus
C)Meningitis
D)A secondary brain tumor
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Diabetes mellitus
C)Meningitis
D)A secondary brain tumor
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80
Risk factors associated with TIAs include:
A)Hypertension
B)Smoking
C)Diabetes mellitus
D)Carotid artery disease
E)All of the above
A)Hypertension
B)Smoking
C)Diabetes mellitus
D)Carotid artery disease
E)All of the above
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