Deck 10: Access to Health Information: Part A

Question 1

According to HIPAA, patients are allowed to amend their own medical records.If a state law prohibits patients from amending their own medical records, the result is _____.

A)a mediator is appointed by the federal Department of Health and Human Services to review the situation
B)HIPAA preempts the state law, and patients in that state are permitted to amend their medical records
C)patients are allowed to obtain legal counsel to represent them during an appeal of the decision
D)state law preempts HIPAA, and patients in that state are not permitted to amend their medical records

Answer 1

HIPAA preempts the state law, and patients in that state are permitted to amend their medical records

Question 2

Which of the following is required to produce an authorization signed by the patient so that personal health information is released.

A)A patient's employer who provides group healthcare insurance
B)Attorney representing facility in which the patient was treated
C)Healthcare practitioners who provide the patient's care and treatment
D)Surveyors who represent accreditation and licensing agencies

Answer 2

A patient's employer who provides group healthcare insurance

Question 3

Which gives patients the right to access their own information.

A)Federal Trade Commission
B)HIPAA privacy rule
C)Privacy Act of 1974
D)U.S.Public Health Service

Answer 3

HIPAA privacy rule

Question 4

The National Commission for the Protection of Human Subjects in Biomedical and Behavior Research published the Belmont Report, which contains principles that require respect for persons, _____, and justice.

A)autonomy
B)beneficence
C)maleficence
D)veracity

Question 5

HIPAA requires _____ inform patients about the use of their health record, such as that provided for continuing care, education, fund raising, marketing, or research?

A)business associates
B)covered entities
C)departments of health
D)health record banks

Question 6

According to the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA), when a patient chooses not to sign a consent for third-party payer use and disclosure of health information for treatment, payment, or health operations (TPO), the patient will be _____.

A)denied health care treatment until the patient has prepaid the provider for services
B)exempted from paying the health care insurance premium for the month of treatment
C)required to arrange payment for costs of clinic, hospital or physician office encounters
D)transferred to a local public facility's emergency department to receive treatment

Question 7

ARRA, HIPAA, Privacy Act of 1974, and applicable state legislation facilitate patient access to personal health information for the purpose of obtaining a copy of all or part of their medical record and to correct or amend the record.Which of the circumstances would likely result in the patient being denied access to their personal health information (PHI)?

A)Behavioral health patients whose PHI might be detrimental to the patient
B)Child custody judge restricts the patient's access to his children's PHI
C)Patient who underwent sterilization procedure following delivery of a live infant
D)Treating physician was found by the courts to have abandoned the patient

Question 8

A valid authorization to release healthcare information must include a _____, which describes the patient's right to cancel the authorization in writing, the exceptions to cancellation, and the cancellation process.

A)ratification standard
B)reasonable notification
C)redisclosure notice
D)revocation statement

Question 9

The process of requiring the patient (or legal representative) to provide written authorization for disclosure of healthcare information from medical records is called _____.

A)breach of confidentiality
B)implied consent
C)release of information
D)tacit authorization

Question 10

An authorization to release healthcare information is signed _____ the dates of treatment for which the disclosure request is made.

A)before or after
B)following
C)prior to
D)without knowing

Question 11

Which is a repository of personal health records (PHRs) maintained in an electronic format and operated by governmental or commercial entities, which serve as trusted custodians of the data?

A)electronic health record
B)health record bank
C)national health information network
D)personal health information

Question 12

Today, the _____ owns the physical record, and the _____ owns the information within it.

A)patient, patient
B)patient, provider
C)provider, patient
D)provider, provider

Question 13

According to HIPAA, someone who performs or assists in performing a function or activity that involves the use or disclosure of individually identifiable health information on behalf of a covered entity is called a _____.

A)business associate
B)healthcare provider
C)medical researcher
D)third-party payer

Question 14

HIPAA requires the patient to consent to the use and disclosure of health information for treatment, payment, or health care operations (TPO).Which statement associated with the TPO regulation is true?

A)Covered entities are mandated by HIPAA to obtain patient consent prior to starting any patient care or treatment.
B)Patients can consent to the use of their information, but they are not permitted to reject the use of their information.
C)Third-party payers cannot require that enrollment in a health plan is contingent upon obtaining the patient's consent.
D)Upon patient request, covered entities must provide a list of all disclosures of the patient's information.

Question 15

Patients have an opportunity to consent, reject, or restrict the use of their personal health information, which is done by providing a _____ to the patient

A)minimum necessity standard
B)notice of privacy practice
C)preemption doctrine
D)release of information authorization

Question 16

ARRA confines the release of personal health information to a(n) _____ data set or to the minimum necessary to accomplish the purpose of use, disclosure, or request.

A)broad
B)extensive
C)limited
D)varied

Question 17

One purpose of an institutional review board (IRB) is to _____ medical research prior to involving a human subject.

A)dispute the safe harbor provision for
B)ensure reliability and validity of
C)review, approve, and monitor
D)supervise investigators who conduct

Question 18

Which invalidates an authorization to release healthcare information?

A)covered entity cancellation
B)data elements are completed
C)expired revocation date
D)material information is true

Question 19

American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) provisions include the notification of individuals when a breach of confidential occurs.When a state law has a similar provision, _____.

A)ARRA always preempts this provision in state laws
B)ARRA preempts state laws when ARRA is more stringent
C)state laws never preempt this provision of ARRA
D)state laws always preempt this ARRA provision

Question 20

Which asserts that federal matters (e.g., HIPAA legislation) take precedence over state or local matters (e.g., statutes)?

A)Doctrine of res judicata
B)Doctrine of respondeat superior
C)Preemption doctrine
D)Rescue doctrine

Question 21

Disclosure of _____ information always requires a judicial decision.

A)abortion
B)adoption
C)drug abuse
D)HIV or AIDS

Question 22

Failure to report a public health threat, such as _____, may be considered an infraction of the law.

A)an injury caused by a deadly weapon
B)an overuse of healthcare resources
C)the breach of adoption information
D)the theft of a patient's identity