Exam 1: EC-Council Certified Incident Handler
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Exam 1: EC-Council Certified Incident Handler
1
Developing effective security controls is a balance between:
A) Risk Management and Operations
B) Corporate Culture and Job Expectations
C) Operations and Regulations
D) Technology and Vendor Management
A) Risk Management and Operations
B) Corporate Culture and Job Expectations
C) Operations and Regulations
D) Technology and Vendor Management
A
2
The PRIMARY objective for information security program development should be:
A) Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.
B) Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements
C) Establishing incident response programs.
D) Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.
A) Reducing the impact of the risk to the business.
B) Establishing strategic alignment with bunsiness continuity requirements
C) Establishing incident response programs.
D) Identifying and implementing the best security solutions.
A
3
Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies?
A) Organizational objectives and risk tolerance
B) Risk assessment criteria
C) IT architecture complexity
D) Enterprise disaster recovery plans
A) Organizational objectives and risk tolerance
B) Risk assessment criteria
C) IT architecture complexity
D) Enterprise disaster recovery plans
A
4
The FIRST step in establishing a security governance program is to?
A) Conduct a risk assessment.
B) Obtain senior level sponsorship.
C) Conduct a workshop for all end users.
D) Prepare a security budget.
A) Conduct a risk assessment.
B) Obtain senior level sponsorship.
C) Conduct a workshop for all end users.
D) Prepare a security budget.
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5
Which of the following most commonly falls within the scope of an information security governance steering committee?
A) Approving access to critical financial systems
B) Developing content for security awareness programs
C) Interviewing candidates for information security specialist positions
D) Vetting information security policies
A) Approving access to critical financial systems
B) Developing content for security awareness programs
C) Interviewing candidates for information security specialist positions
D) Vetting information security policies
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6
When briefing senior management on the creation of a governance process, the MOST important aspect should be:
A) information security metrics.
B) knowledge required to analyze each issue.
C) baseline against which metrics are evaluated.
D) linkage to business area objectives.
A) information security metrics.
B) knowledge required to analyze each issue.
C) baseline against which metrics are evaluated.
D) linkage to business area objectives.
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7
One of the MAIN goals of a Business Continuity Plan is to
A) Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster
B) Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster
C) Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster
D) Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.
A) Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster
B) Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster
C) Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster
D) Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.
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8
Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the implementation of an information security governance model?
A) Organizational budget
B) Distance between physical locations
C) Number of employees
D) Complexity of organizational structure
A) Organizational budget
B) Distance between physical locations
C) Number of employees
D) Complexity of organizational structure
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9
Which of the following is of MOST importance when security leaders of an organization are required to align security to influence the culture of an organization?
A) Poses a strong technical background
B) Understand all regulations affecting the organization
C) Understand the business goals of the organization
D) Poses a strong auditing background
A) Poses a strong technical background
B) Understand all regulations affecting the organization
C) Understand the business goals of the organization
D) Poses a strong auditing background
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10
From an information security perspective, information that no longer supports the main purpose of the business should be:
A) assessed by a business impact analysis.
B) protected under the information classification policy.
C) analyzed under the data ownership policy.
D) analyzed under the retention policy
A) assessed by a business impact analysis.
B) protected under the information classification policy.
C) analyzed under the data ownership policy.
D) analyzed under the retention policy
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11
Which of the following is considered the MOST effective tool against social engineering?
A) Anti-phishing tools
B) Anti-malware tools
C) Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program
D) Effective Security awareness program
A) Anti-phishing tools
B) Anti-malware tools
C) Effective Security Vulnerability Management Program
D) Effective Security awareness program
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12
A security professional has been promoted to be the CISO of an organization. The first task is to create a security policy for this organization. The CISO creates and publishes the security policy. This policy however, is ignored and not enforced consistently. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the policy shortcomings?
A) Lack of a formal security awareness program
B) Lack of a formal security policy governance process
C) Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities
D) Lack of a formal risk management policy
A) Lack of a formal security awareness program
B) Lack of a formal security policy governance process
C) Lack of formal definition of roles and responsibilities
D) Lack of a formal risk management policy
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13
Who in the organization determines access to information?
A) Legal department
B) Compliance officer
C) Data Owner
D) Information security officer
A) Legal department
B) Compliance officer
C) Data Owner
D) Information security officer
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14
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of an effective security governance process?
A) Reduction of liability and overall risk to the organization
B) Better vendor management
C) Reduction of security breaches
D) Senior management participation in the incident response process
A) Reduction of liability and overall risk to the organization
B) Better vendor management
C) Reduction of security breaches
D) Senior management participation in the incident response process
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15
When dealing with Security Incident Response procedures, which of the following steps come FIRST when reacting to an incident?
A) Escalation
B) Recovery
C) Eradication
D) Containment
A) Escalation
B) Recovery
C) Eradication
D) Containment
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16
Which of the following is a benefit of information security governance?
A) Questioning the trust in vendor relationships.
B) Increasing the risk of decisions based on incomplete management information.
C) Direct involvement of senior management in developing control processes
D) Reduction of the potential for civil and legal liability
A) Questioning the trust in vendor relationships.
B) Increasing the risk of decisions based on incomplete management information.
C) Direct involvement of senior management in developing control processes
D) Reduction of the potential for civil and legal liability
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17
An organization's Information Security Policy is of MOST importance because
A) it communicates management's commitment to protecting information resources
B) it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendors
C) it defines a process to meet compliance requirements
D) it establishes a framework to protect confidential information
A) it communicates management's commitment to protecting information resources
B) it is formally acknowledged by all employees and vendors
C) it defines a process to meet compliance requirements
D) it establishes a framework to protect confidential information
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18
Which of the following is the MAIN reason to follow a formal risk management process in an organization that hosts and uses privately identifiable information (PII) as part of their business models and processes?
A) Need to comply with breach disclosure laws
B) Need to transfer the risk associated with hosting PII data
C) Need to better understand the risk associated with using PII data
D) Fiduciary responsibility to safeguard credit card information
A) Need to comply with breach disclosure laws
B) Need to transfer the risk associated with hosting PII data
C) Need to better understand the risk associated with using PII data
D) Fiduciary responsibility to safeguard credit card information
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19
When managing an Information Security Program, which of the following is of MOST importance in order to influence the culture of an organization?
A) An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization
B) Alignment of security goals with business goals
C) Compliance with local privacy regulations
D) Support from Legal and HR teams
A) An independent Governance, Risk and Compliance organization
B) Alignment of security goals with business goals
C) Compliance with local privacy regulations
D) Support from Legal and HR teams
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20
The alerting, monitoring and life-cycle management of security related events is typically handled by the
A) security threat and vulnerability management process
B) risk assessment process
C) risk management process
D) governance, risk, and compliance tools
A) security threat and vulnerability management process
B) risk assessment process
C) risk management process
D) governance, risk, and compliance tools
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21
When managing the security architecture for your company you must consider:
A) Security and IT Staff size
B) Company Values
C) Budget
D) All of the above
A) Security and IT Staff size
B) Company Values
C) Budget
D) All of the above
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22
You have purchased a new insurance policy as part of your risk strategy. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Acceptance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Mitigation
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Acceptance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Mitigation
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23
Which of the following is MOST important when dealing with an Information Security Steering committee:
A) Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.
B) Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.
C) Review all past audit and compliance reports.
D) Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.
A) Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.
B) Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.
C) Review all past audit and compliance reports.
D) Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.
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24
The framework that helps to define a minimum standard of protection that business stakeholders must attempt to achieve is referred to as a standard of:
A) Due Protection
B) Due Care
C) Due Compromise
D) Due process
A) Due Protection
B) Due Care
C) Due Compromise
D) Due process
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25
Risk that remains after risk mitigation is known as
A) Persistent risk
B) Residual risk
C) Accepted risk
D) Non-tolerated risk
A) Persistent risk
B) Residual risk
C) Accepted risk
D) Non-tolerated risk
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26
When dealing with a risk management process, asset classification is important because it will impact the overall:
A) Threat identification
B) Risk monitoring
C) Risk treatment
D) Risk tolerance
A) Threat identification
B) Risk monitoring
C) Risk treatment
D) Risk tolerance
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27
The PRIMARY objective of security awareness is to:
A) Ensure that security policies are read.
B) Encourage security-conscious employee behavior.
C) Meet legal and regulatory requirements.
D) Put employees on notice in case follow-up action for noncompliance is necessary
A) Ensure that security policies are read.
B) Encourage security-conscious employee behavior.
C) Meet legal and regulatory requirements.
D) Put employees on notice in case follow-up action for noncompliance is necessary
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28
Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration when an organization retains sensitive customer data and uses this data to better target the organization's products and services?
A) Strong authentication technologies
B) Financial reporting regulations
C) Credit card compliance and regulations
D) Local privacy laws
A) Strong authentication technologies
B) Financial reporting regulations
C) Credit card compliance and regulations
D) Local privacy laws
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29
You have implemented a new security control. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Acceptance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Mitigation
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Acceptance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Mitigation
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30
What is the definition of Risk in Information Security?
A) Risk = Probability x Impact
B) Risk = Threat x Probability
C) Risk = Financial Impact x Probability
D) Risk = Impact x Threat
A) Risk = Probability x Impact
B) Risk = Threat x Probability
C) Risk = Financial Impact x Probability
D) Risk = Impact x Threat
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31
Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
A) Policies
B) Procedures
C) Guidelines
D) Standards
A) Policies
B) Procedures
C) Guidelines
D) Standards
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32
Quantitative Risk Assessments have the following advantages over qualitative risk assessments:
A) They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers
B) They are subjective and can be completed more quickly
C) They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates
D) They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers
A) They are objective and can express risk / cost in real numbers
B) They are subjective and can be completed more quickly
C) They are objective and express risk / cost in approximates
D) They are subjective and can express risk /cost in real numbers
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33
A method to transfer risk is to:
A) Implement redundancy
B) move operations to another region
C) purchase breach insurance
D) Alignment with business operations
A) Implement redundancy
B) move operations to another region
C) purchase breach insurance
D) Alignment with business operations
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34
Regulatory requirements typically force organizations to implement
A) Mandatory controls
B) Discretionary controls
C) Optional controls
D) Financial controls
A) Mandatory controls
B) Discretionary controls
C) Optional controls
D) Financial controls
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35
What is a difference from the list below between quantitative and qualitative Risk Assessment?
A) Quantitative risk assessments result in an exact number (in monetary terms)
B) Qualitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)
C) Qualitative risk assessments map to business objectives
D) Quantitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)
A) Quantitative risk assessments result in an exact number (in monetary terms)
B) Qualitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)
C) Qualitative risk assessments map to business objectives
D) Quantitative risk assessments result in a quantitative assessment (high, medium, low, red, yellow, green)
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36
After a risk assessment is performed, a particular risk is considered to have the potential of costing the organization 1.2 Million USD. This is an example of
A) Risk Tolerance
B) Qualitative risk analysis
C) Risk Appetite
D) Quantitative risk analysis
A) Risk Tolerance
B) Qualitative risk analysis
C) Risk Appetite
D) Quantitative risk analysis
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37
If your organization operates under a model of "assumption of breach", you should:
A) Protect all information resource assets equally
B) Establish active firewall monitoring protocols
C) Purchase insurance for your compliance liability
D) Focus your security efforts on high value assets
A) Protect all information resource assets equally
B) Establish active firewall monitoring protocols
C) Purchase insurance for your compliance liability
D) Focus your security efforts on high value assets
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38
In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?
A) High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months
B) Every 12 months
C) Every 18 months
D) Every six months
A) High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months
B) Every 12 months
C) Every 18 months
D) Every six months
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39
Which of the following intellectual Property components is focused on maintaining brand recognition?
A) Trademark
B) Patent
C) Research Logs
D) Copyright
A) Trademark
B) Patent
C) Research Logs
D) Copyright
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40
When an organization claims it is secure because it is PCI-DSS certified, what is a good first question to ask towards assessing the effectiveness of their security program?
A) How many credit card records are stored?
B) How many servers do you have?
C) What is the scope of the certification?
D) What is the value of the assets at risk?
A) How many credit card records are stored?
B) How many servers do you have?
C) What is the scope of the certification?
D) What is the value of the assets at risk?
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41
An organization is looking for a framework to measure the efficiency and effectiveness of their Information Security Management System. Which of the following international standards can BEST assist this organization?
A) International Organization for Standardizations - 27004 (ISO-27004)
B) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
C) Control Objectives for Information Technology (COBIT)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
A) International Organization for Standardizations - 27004 (ISO-27004)
B) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
C) Control Objectives for Information Technology (COBIT)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
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42
Risk is defined as:
A) Threat times vulnerability divided by control
B) Advisory plus capability plus vulnerability
C) Asset loss times likelihood of event
D) Quantitative plus qualitative impact
A) Threat times vulnerability divided by control
B) Advisory plus capability plus vulnerability
C) Asset loss times likelihood of event
D) Quantitative plus qualitative impact
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43
A global retail organization is looking to implement a consistent Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Process across all of its business units. Which of the following standards and guidelines can BEST address this organization's need?
A) International Organization for Standardizations - 22301 (ISO-22301)
B) Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
A) International Organization for Standardizations - 22301 (ISO-22301)
B) Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
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44
A Security Operations Centre (SOC) manager is informed that a database containing highly sensitive corporate strategy information is under attack. Information has been stolen and the database server was disconnected. Who must be informed of this incident?
A) Internal audit
B) The data owner
C) All executive staff
D) Government regulators
A) Internal audit
B) The data owner
C) All executive staff
D) Government regulators
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45
You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?
A) Chief Information Security Officer
B) Chief Executive Officer
C) Chief Information Officer
D) Chief Legal Counsel
A) Chief Information Security Officer
B) Chief Executive Officer
C) Chief Information Officer
D) Chief Legal Counsel
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46
An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?
A) Determine the risk tolerance
B) Perform an asset classification
C) Create an architecture gap analysis
D) Analyze existing controls on systems
A) Determine the risk tolerance
B) Perform an asset classification
C) Create an architecture gap analysis
D) Analyze existing controls on systems
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47
The exposure factor of a threat to your organization is defined by?
A) Asset value times exposure factor
B) Annual rate of occurrence
C) Annual loss expectancy minus current cost of controls
D) Percentage of loss experienced due to a realized threat event
A) Asset value times exposure factor
B) Annual rate of occurrence
C) Annual loss expectancy minus current cost of controls
D) Percentage of loss experienced due to a realized threat event
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48
What two methods are used to assess risk impact?
A) Cost and annual rate of expectance
B) Subjective and Objective
C) Qualitative and percent of loss realized
D) Quantitative and qualitative
A) Cost and annual rate of expectance
B) Subjective and Objective
C) Qualitative and percent of loss realized
D) Quantitative and qualitative
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49
A security manager regualrly checks work areas after buisness hours for security violations; such as unsecured files or unattended computers with active sessions. This activity BEST demonstrates what part of a security program?
A) Audit validation
B) Physical control testing
C) Compliance management
D) Security awareness training
A) Audit validation
B) Physical control testing
C) Compliance management
D) Security awareness training
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50
An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?
A) Data breach disclosure
B) Consumer right disclosure
C) Security incident disclosure
D) Special circumstance disclosure
A) Data breach disclosure
B) Consumer right disclosure
C) Security incident disclosure
D) Special circumstance disclosure
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51
A global retail company is creating a new compliance management process. Which of the following regulations is of MOST importance to be tracked and managed by this process?
A) Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
B) International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) standard
A) Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)
B) International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) standard
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52
A security manager has created a risk program. Which of the following is a critical part of ensuring the program is successful?
A) Providing a risk program governance structure
B) Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code
C) Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats
D) Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements
A) Providing a risk program governance structure
B) Ensuring developers include risk control comments in code
C) Creating risk assessment templates based on specific threats
D) Allowing for the acceptance of risk for regulatory compliance requirements
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53
In which of the following cases, would an organization be more prone to risk acceptance vs. risk mitigation?
A) The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk
B) The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk
C) The organization's risk tolerance is high
D) The organization's risk tolerance is lo
A) The organization uses exclusively a quantitative process to measure risk
B) The organization uses exclusively a qualitative process to measure risk
C) The organization's risk tolerance is high
D) The organization's risk tolerance is lo
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54
A company wants to fill a Chief Information Security Officer position in the organization. They need to define and implement a more holistic security program. Which of the following qualifications and experience would be MOST desirable to find in a candidate?
A) Multiple certifications, strong technical capabilities and lengthy resume
B) Industry certifications, technical knowledge and program management skills
C) College degree, audit capabilities and complex project management
D) Multiple references, strong background check and industry certifications
A) Multiple certifications, strong technical capabilities and lengthy resume
B) Industry certifications, technical knowledge and program management skills
C) College degree, audit capabilities and complex project management
D) Multiple references, strong background check and industry certifications
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55
According to ISO 27001, of the steps for establishing an Information Security Governance program listed below, which comes first?
A) Identify threats, risks, impacts and vulnerabilities
B) Decide how to manage risk
C) Define the budget of the Information Security Management System
D) Define Information Security Policy
A) Identify threats, risks, impacts and vulnerabilities
B) Decide how to manage risk
C) Define the budget of the Information Security Management System
D) Define Information Security Policy
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56
An organization's firewall technology needs replaced. A specific technology has been selected that is less costly than others and lacking in some important capabilities. The security officer has voiced concerns about sensitive data breaches but the decision is made to purchase. What does this selection indicate?
A) A high threat environment
B) A low risk tolerance environment
C) I low vulnerability environment
D) A high risk tolerance environment
A) A high threat environment
B) A low risk tolerance environment
C) I low vulnerability environment
D) A high risk tolerance environment
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57
Ensuring that the actions of a set of people, applications and systems follow the organization's rules is BEST described as:
A) Risk management
B) Security management
C) Mitigation management
D) Compliance management
A) Risk management
B) Security management
C) Mitigation management
D) Compliance management
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58
You have a system with 2 identified risks. You determine the probability of one risk occurring is higher than the
A) Controlled mitigation effort
B) Risk impact comparison
C) Relative likelihood of event
D) Comparative threat analysis
A) Controlled mitigation effort
B) Risk impact comparison
C) Relative likelihood of event
D) Comparative threat analysis
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59
A global health insurance company is concerned about protecting confidential information. Which of the following is of MOST concern to this organization?
A) Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.
B) Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.
C) Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.
D) Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.
A) Compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) regulations.
B) Alignment with financial reporting regulations for each country where they operate.
C) Alignment with International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards.
D) Compliance with patient data protection regulations for each country where they operate.
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60
Which of the following international standards can be BEST used to define a Risk Management process in an organization?
A) National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)
B) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27004 (ISO-27004)
A) National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)
B) International Organization for Standardizations - 27005 (ISO-27005)
C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)
D) International Organization for Standardizations - 27004 (ISO-27004)
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61
What is the MAIN reason for conflicts between Information Technology and Information Security programs?
A) Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.
B) Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.
C) Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.
D) The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.
A) Technology governance defines technology policies and standards while security governance does not.
B) Security governance defines technology best practices and Information Technology governance does not.
C) Technology Governance is focused on process risks whereas Security Governance is focused on business risk.
D) The effective implementation of security controls can be viewed as an inhibitor to rapid Information Technology implementations.
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62
What is the main purpose of the Incident Response Team?
A) Ensure efficient recovery and reinstate repaired systems
B) Create effective policies detailing program activities
C) Communicate details of information security incidents
D) Provide current employee awareness programs
A) Ensure efficient recovery and reinstate repaired systems
B) Create effective policies detailing program activities
C) Communicate details of information security incidents
D) Provide current employee awareness programs
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63
Which of the following is used to establish and maintain a framework to provide assurance that information security strategies are aligned with organizational objectives?
A) Awareness
B) Compliance
C) Governance
D) Management
A) Awareness
B) Compliance
C) Governance
D) Management
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64
What is the BEST way to achieve on-going compliance monitoring in an organization?
A) Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.
B) Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.
C) Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.
D) Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.
A) Only check compliance right before the auditors are scheduled to arrive onsite.
B) Outsource compliance to a 3rd party vendor and let them manage the program.
C) Have Compliance and Information Security partner to correct issues as they arise.
D) Have Compliance direct Information Security to fix issues after the auditors report.
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65
Within an organization's vulnerability management program, who has the responsibility to implement remediation actions?
A) Security officer
B) Data owner
C) Vulnerability engineer
D) System administrator
A) Security officer
B) Data owner
C) Vulnerability engineer
D) System administrator
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66
A security officer wants to implement a vulnerability scanning program. The officer is uncertain of the state of vulnerability resiliency within the organization's large IT infrastructure. What would be the BEST approach to minimize scan data output while retaining a realistic view of system vulnerability?
A) Scan a representative sample of systems
B) Perform the scans only during off-business hours
C) Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings
D) Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed
A) Scan a representative sample of systems
B) Perform the scans only during off-business hours
C) Decrease the vulnerabilities within the scan tool settings
D) Filter the scan output so only pertinent data is analyzed
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67
The success of the Chief Information Security Officer is MOST dependent upon:
A) favorable audit findings
B) following the recommendations of consultants and contractors
C) development of relationships with organization executives
D) raising awareness of security issues with end users
A) favorable audit findings
B) following the recommendations of consultants and contractors
C) development of relationships with organization executives
D) raising awareness of security issues with end users
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Unlock for access to all 80 flashcards in this deck.
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68
Which of the following represents the HIGHEST negative impact resulting from an ineffective security governance program?
A) Reduction of budget
B) Decreased security awareness
C) Improper use of information resources
D) Fines for regulatory non-compliance
A) Reduction of budget
B) Decreased security awareness
C) Improper use of information resources
D) Fines for regulatory non-compliance
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69
Risk appetite directly affects what part of a vulnerability management program?
A) Staff
B) Scope
C) Schedule
D) Scan tools
A) Staff
B) Scope
C) Schedule
D) Scan tools
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70
Which of the following functions MUST your Information Security Governance program include for formal organizational reporting?
A) Audit and Legal
B) Budget and Compliance
C) Human Resources and Budget
D) Legal and Human Resources
A) Audit and Legal
B) Budget and Compliance
C) Human Resources and Budget
D) Legal and Human Resources
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71
Information security policies should be reviewed:
A) by stakeholders at least annually
B) by the CISO when new systems are brought online
C) by the Incident Response team after an audit
D) by internal audit semiannually
A) by stakeholders at least annually
B) by the CISO when new systems are brought online
C) by the Incident Response team after an audit
D) by internal audit semiannually
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72
When choosing a risk mitigation method what is the MOST important factor?
A) Approval from the board of directors
B) Cost of the mitigation is less than the risk
C) Metrics of mitigation method success
D) Mitigation method complies with PCI regulations
A) Approval from the board of directors
B) Cost of the mitigation is less than the risk
C) Metrics of mitigation method success
D) Mitigation method complies with PCI regulations
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73
When creating a vulnerability scan schedule, who is the MOST critical person to communicate with in order to ensure impact of the scan is minimized?
A) The asset owner
B) The asset manager
C) The data custodian
D) The project manager
A) The asset owner
B) The asset manager
C) The data custodian
D) The project manager
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74
Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?
A) Threat
B) Vulnerability
C) Attack vector
D) Exploitation
A) Threat
B) Vulnerability
C) Attack vector
D) Exploitation
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75
Which of the following provides an audit framework?
A) Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)
B) Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
C) International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002
D) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30
A) Control Objectives for IT (COBIT)
B) Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)
C) International Organization Standard (ISO) 27002
D) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-30
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76
An organization information security policy serves to
A) establish budgetary input in order to meet compliance requirements
B) establish acceptable systems and user behavior
C) define security configurations for systems
D) define relationships with external law enforcement agencies
A) establish budgetary input in order to meet compliance requirements
B) establish acceptable systems and user behavior
C) define security configurations for systems
D) define relationships with external law enforcement agencies
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77
Payment Card Industry (PCI) compliance requirements are based on what criteria?
A) The types of cardholder data retained
B) The duration card holder data is retained
C) The size of the organization processing credit card data
D) The number of transactions performed per year by an organization
A) The types of cardholder data retained
B) The duration card holder data is retained
C) The size of the organization processing credit card data
D) The number of transactions performed per year by an organization
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78
The Information Security Management program MUST protect:
A) all organizational assets
B) critical business processes and /or revenue streams
C) intellectual property released into the public domain
D) against distributed denial of service attacks
A) all organizational assets
B) critical business processes and /or revenue streams
C) intellectual property released into the public domain
D) against distributed denial of service attacks
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79
When deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) the BEST way to get maximum protection from the system is to deploy it
A) In promiscuous mode and only detect malicious traffic.
B) In-line and turn on blocking mode to stop malicious traffic.
C) In promiscuous mode and block malicious traffic.
D) In-line and turn on alert mode to stop malicious traffic.
A) In promiscuous mode and only detect malicious traffic.
B) In-line and turn on blocking mode to stop malicious traffic.
C) In promiscuous mode and block malicious traffic.
D) In-line and turn on alert mode to stop malicious traffic.
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80
The purpose of NIST SP 800-53 as part of the NIST System Certification and Accreditation Project is to establish a set of standardized, minimum security controls for IT systems addressing low, moderate, and high levels of concern for
A) Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
B) Assurance, Compliance and Availability
C) International Compliance
D) Integrity and Availability
A) Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
B) Assurance, Compliance and Availability
C) International Compliance
D) Integrity and Availability
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