Deck 26: Microbial Diseases

Question 1

Which of the following pathogens does NOT cause diarrhea?

A) E. coli Ol57:H7
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following is caused by a fungus?

A) folliculitis
B) trichomoniasis
C) blastomycosis
D) listeriosis
E) Lyme disease

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Bacterial infections of the lung that arise secondary to viral disease are attributable in part to:

A) the high virulence of the bacterial pathogen
B) viruses providing attachment receptors for the bacteria
C) the host's phagocytes mutating
D) an impaired mucociliary escalator due to dehydration of host
E) the low virulence of the viral disease

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following is the causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis?

A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium difficile
E) Helicobacter pylori

Question 5

Which of the following respiratory infections is caused by a viral pathogen?

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) Legionnaires' disease
E) severe acute respiratory syndrome

Question 6

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all of the following EXCEPT:

A) meningitis
B) lobar pneumonia
C) bronchopneumonia
D) necrotizing fasciitis
E) bacteremia

Question 7

What disease is caused without an infection?

A) giardiasis
B) tetanus
C) staphylococcal food poisoning
D) candidiasis
E) psittacosis

Question 8

MRSA infections are typically treated with:

A) penicillin G
B) tetracycline
C) vancomycin
D) ciproflaxacin
E) amoxicillins

Question 9

The major challenge with treating flesh-eating disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes is that:

A) the bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen
B) no antibiotic is useful, because it's a mixed infection
C) toxin-encoding phage also encode antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue limits treatment access

Question 10

What will be the result of a tuberculin skin test for a patient with an active tuberculosis disease?

A) negative result
B) positive result
C) profuse bleeding
D) ulcerating lesion
E) severe bruising

Question 11

All of the following are true for a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT:

A) Latent tuberculosis is indicated.
B) It signifies active disease in all patients.
C) A delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction occurred.
D) The purified protein derivative is the antigen.
E) Redness and some swelling was observed.

Question 12

A 15-year-old female was said to have Koplik's spots after a doctor's examination. This suggests that:

A) she has measles caused by the rubeola virus
B) no antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection
C) she has a toxin-encoding phage which also encodes antibiotic degrading enzymes
D) the causative agent is a MRSA
E) rapid necrosis of infected tissue has limited access to the antibiotic

Question 13

Bacille Calmette-Guérin, or BCG, is a weakened strain used to vaccinate against:

A) diphtheria
B) whooping cough
C) tuberculosis
D) pneumonia
E) influenza

Question 14

Many infectious diseases display similar __________, making diagnosis difficult.

A) syndromes
B) symptoms
C) vectors
D) disease mechanisms
E) modes of transmission

Question 15

Rubeola measles is caused by __________ virus.

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) paramyxovirus
D) rhinovirus
E) adenovirus

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of influenza?

A) fever
B) runny nose
C) muscle aches
D) sore throat
E) headache

Question 17

Most diarrheal diseases are of what origin?

A) viral
B) bacterial
C) fungal
D) archaeal
E) any of the above

Question 18

Toxic shock syndrome is associated with which of the following?

A) E. coli O157:H7
B) enterotoxin of Staphylococcus aureus
C) superantigens of some Gram-positive cocci
D) meningococcal capsular antigen
E) pertactin of whooping cough

Question 19

A __________ disease is an infection that normally affects animals but that can be transmitted to humans.

A) zoonotic
B) herd
C) fulminating
D) recurrent or cyclic
E) community-acquired

Question 20

German measles and __________ are different names describing the same disease.

A) shingles
B) rubeola
C) rubella
D) varicella
E) small pox

Question 21

A nationwide recall of spinach in 2006 was due to contamination by cattle water containing:

A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) E. coli O157:H7
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Shigella species
E) hepatitis A virus

Question 22

__________ diseases are often called spongiform encephalopathies.

A) Meningitis
B) Cytotoxin
C) Neurotoxin
D) Prion
E) Virus

Question 23

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT typically prescribed for staphylococcal food poisoning?

A) The bacterium is a multidrug-resistant pathogen.
B) No antibiotic is useful because it's a mixed infection.
C) No living cells are involved in the disease.
D) The causative agent is a MRSA.
E) None of the above.

Question 24

Which of the following is correctly paired?

A) Koplik's spot-HIV-induced cancer
B) herd immunity-immunity of animals
C) acetylcholine blocker- botulism toxin
D) Lyme disease-enteric disorder
E) enteric fever-elevated white blood cell counts

Question 25

The presence of leukocytes in a fecal smear would best indicate which type of infection?

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) enteroinvasive
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 26

Which of the following pathogens is an intracellular agent?

A) chlamydia
B) rickettsia
C) prion
D) both A and B
E) none of the above

Question 27

Which of the following is a genetic neurodegenerative disease?

A) kuru
B) fatal familial insomnia
C) mad cow disease
D) wasting disease
E) all of the above

Question 28

Which of the following STDs is caused by a protozoan infection?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
D) HIV
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 29

Giardia lamblia enters a human or other host in what form?

A) spore
B) endospore
C) cyst
D) worm
E) trophozoite

Question 30

In urinary tract infections (UTIs), what is the implication of the ability of bacteria to actually hide urinary tract epithelial cells and form biofilms?

A) UTIs can never be cured.
B) A reservoir for reinfection is created.
C) The kidney will invariably be infected.
D) Intracellular pathogens are the etiologies for UTI.
E) The ureter is the usual route for bladder infection.

Question 31

The most common route of infection in a urinary tract infection is:

A) gallbladder to the urethra
B) bladder to the kidney
C) kidney to the bladder
D) urethra to the bladder
E) kidney to the urethra

Question 32

Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of:

A) red blood cells
B) natural killer cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) phagocytes
E) platelets

Question 33

Eastern equine encephalitis is transmitted to humans via:

A) aerosol transmission
B) tick bite
C) trauma and wound infection
D) a mosquito bite
E) pet bite

Question 34

During secondary syphilis, the spirochettes spread to the nervous and cardiovascular system; consequently:

A) secondary syphilis is a latent form of the disease
B) it cannot be cured
C) the host remains infectious and has a characteristic rash
D) serology is negative
E) there is no transplacental transmission

Question 35

Helicobacter pylori is thought to cause cancer through:

A) toxin production
B) inducing superantigens
C) neutralizing acid pH, which allows anaerobes to grow
D) injecting the CagA protein into gastric epithelial cells
E) adhering with pili to the oropharygeal epithelium

Question 36

Which of the following STDs can lead to sterility?

A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) trichomoniasis
D) chancroid
E) genital herpes

Question 37

A chancre is the initial symptom of what disease?

A) gonorrhea
B) chlamydia
C) syphilis
D) chancroid
E) genital warts

Question 38

By the age of 3, all children are believed to have had a rotavirus infection, which is spread by what route?

A) food
B) fecal-oral
C) air
D) blood
E) water

Question 39

Which of the following is employed by Chlamydia for spread within and between hosts?

A) elementary body
B) rapidly replicating reticulate body
C) microspore
D) conidia
E) actin polymer

Question 40

Strains of Escherichia coli that cause about 75% of all urinary tract infections use __________ to latch onto proteins coating the urinary tract epithelium.

A) sex pili
B) P pili
C) fimbrae
D) adhesins
E) glycocalyx

Question 41

Which vaccine is recommended for administration when one becomes an adolescent (11-12 years)?

A) hepatitis B
B) varicella
C) pneumococcal
D) meningococcal
E) tuberculosis

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT correct about malaria?

A) It infects over 300 million people worldwide each year.
B) It is highly communicable from host to host.
C) Plasmodium species are the causative agents.
D) Free-iron toxicity is the mode of action of chloroquine.
E) Drug resistance is a challenge.

Question 43

What evidence suggests that Columbus did NOT bring syphilis back from the New World, but instead brought it from Europe to the New World?

Question 44

Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?

Question 45

Why is anthrax primarily, though uncommonly, found in people who work with sheep and sheep-related products?

Question 46

One major source of Clostridium botulinum infection in infants is:

A) any honey-based meal
B) endospore-contaminated honey
C) contaminated drinking water
D) fomites in the house
E) breast milk

Question 47

Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?

A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.

Question 48

Compare and contrast the characteristic symptoms of the common cold and the flu.

Question 49

Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for the enterohemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7, or EHEC?

Question 50

What do hepatitis A and B viruses have in common?

A) They are both RNA viruses.
B) They infect the liver.
C) They can be transmitted by blood products.
D) There are vaccines for both viral diseases.
E) Both B and D are correct.

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?

A) erythema migrans-Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme disease
C) salvanic cycle-wild rodent and flea cycling of plague
D) pelvic inflammatory disease-antigen phase variation
E) multidrug resistance-emerging Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 52

How can prescribing an antibiotic for a sick patient actually lead to triggering gastrointestinal illness? Explain and give an example.

Question 53

What makes uropathogenic Escherichia coli different from the other E. coli?

Question 54

What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.

Question 55

Regarding the neurotoxigenic disease caused by Clostridium tetani, which of the following is NOT correct?

A) The tetanospasmin toxoid is an effective vaccine.
B) It is a spasmic paralytic disease.
C) The causative agent produces endospores.
D) Herd immunity can decrease the risk of acquiring it.
E) It inhibits neurotransmitters.

Question 56

A hunter who presents with flu-like symptoms and lives in Boston, Massachusetts, has a "bull's-eye" rash on his leg. The appropriate diagnosis is:

A) Lyme disease
B) tuleremia
C) meningitis
D) malaria
E) measles

Question 57

A commonly implicated causative agent of subacute endocarditis (SBE) is:

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) viridans streptococci
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 58

How would a chest X-ray and blood counts differ for a fungal versus bacterial lung infection in children and adults?

Question 59

Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?

A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B

Question 60

Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Describe the reasons for its success in causing disease.

Question 61

Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.

Question 62

What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.

Question 63

Explain how Clostridium botulinum, an obligate anaerobe, secretes its potent toxins in food.

Question 64

Define herd immunity and explain why it is only effective against infections spread through person-to-person contact.

Question 65

People who come down with an STD and do not get treated frequently end up with co-STD infections. Why is this? Explain.

Question 66

Why is reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae possible?

Question 67

Name and describe the role of the three domains found in tetanus and botulism neurotoxins.

Question 68

Does chocolate agar contain chocolate? Describe the medium and what it is used for.

Question 69

Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.

Question 70

Describe the replication cycle of Chlamydia.