Deck 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System

Question 1

Infection of the urinary bladder is called ______.

A)vaginitis
B)pyelonephritis
C)PID
D)urethritis
E)cystitis

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their ______.

A)saliva
B)urine
C)blood
D)feces

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?

A)IgG
B)Mucus secretions
C)Lysozyme
D)IgA
E)Flushing action of urine

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?

A)Vaginal pH is neutral.
B)Secretory IgA provides protection.
C)Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
D)Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
E)Estrogen causes glycogen release.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true regarding the male urethral biota?

A)There are no resident biota in the urethra.
B)The urethral biota is the same as the anal biota.
C) The urethral biota varies with sexual activity of the male.
D) The urethral biota in the male is exactly the same biota as in the female urethra.

Question 6

The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is ______.

A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Pseudomonas aeurginosa
D)Escherichia coli

Question 7

Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract

A) is indicative of underlying infection.
B) can contribute to STIs.
C)can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.
D)is protective.
E)is the causative agent in common yeast infections.

Question 8

Restriction factors in the reproductive tract

A)provide an innate protective effect against viral infection.
B)appear to derive from unculturable microbes in the normal microbiota.
C)adjust the pH of the mucosa and are modified during sexual maturation.
D)are enzymes that hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond in DNA.

Question 9

Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?

A)Treponema pallidum
B)Schistosoma haematobium
C)Group B Streptococcus
D)Gardnerella vaginalis
E)Proteus mirabilis

Question 10

Schistosoma haematobium infection

A)predisposes victims to bladder cancer.
B)is transmitted via the fecal-oral route.
C)has no effective treatment at this time.
D)begins with larval entry through abraded skin.
E)predisposes victims to liver cancer.

Question 11

Which of the following is not a part of the male genital (reproductive) system?

A)Ureter
B)Vas deferens
C)Prostate
D)Epididymis

Question 12

The vaginal microbiome changes as a female matures because

A)hormonal changes and sexual activity alter the environment of the vagina.
B)estrogen has an antibiotic effect on the vaginal microbiome.
C)most sexually mature women use douching as a means to eliminate the vaginal microbiome.
D)episodic treatments with antibiotics for UTIs and antifungals for vaginitis eliminate many of the normal microbiota.

Question 13

Normal biota of the urinary tract in both genders include all of the following except ______.

A)Staphylococcus
B)Escherichia coli
C)Lactobacillus
D)nonhemolytic Streptococcus
E)Corynebacterium

Question 14

Trichomonas vaginalis

A)does not produce cysts.
B)infection is generally asymptomatic in males.
C)causes vaginitis in females.
D)has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 15

A woman is much more likely than a man to contract a UTI.Which of the following practices would best reduce her chances of getting a UTI?

A)Daily antibiotic dose
B)Not wearing tight-fitting clothes
C) Wiping with toilet paper in a front-to-back direction
D) Using birth control pills

Question 16

Why does the microbiota of the reproductive tract change as the female ages from childhood to adulthood to old age?

A)Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time.
B)The pH of the vagina changes over time.
C) The microbes in the vagina change the environment, which affects the populations of microbes living there.
D)Post-menopausal women have a stable microbiota.
E) All of these statements are true.

Question 17

Which of the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect?

A)The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
B)Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes.
C)It can be transmitted by animal bites.
D)The causative organism is a spirochete.
E)It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.

Question 18

All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection except ______.

A)diarrhea
B)white blood cells in urine
C)nausea
D)red blood cells in urine
E)painful urination

Question 19

Prostatitis and urinary tract infections (UTIs) are alike in that

A)treatment will minimize the symptoms but will never completely eliminate the disease.
B)untreated cases may complicate by infecting the kidneys.
C)women are far more susceptible to both infections than men.
D)both result from the transfer of normal biota from the GI tract.

Question 20

The patient's symptoms are pain upon urination and blood in the urine but no bacteria are cultured from the urine.The doctor suspects schistosomiasis.What question did the doctor asked that gave her a clue about the disease?

A)Have you had a blood transfusion?
B)Have you been having unprotected sex?
C)Have you been eating at places that might not be hygienic?
D) Have you traveled out of the U.S.?

Question 21

The latency period of syphilis is ______.

A)3 to 6 months
B)1 year
C)10 years
D) 20 years or longer

Question 22

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?

A)All are pathogenic.
B)All cells have a cell wall.
C)The cells stain gram-negative.
D)The cells exhibit a helical shape.
E)The cells are always motile.

Question 23

Leptospirosis

A)can be contracted from the environment.
B)is strictly transmitted by sexual contact.
C)is communicable.
D)has only humans as a reservoir.
E)is contracted by the fecal-oral route.

Question 24

During the tertiary stage of syphilis, tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage.

A)gummas
B)chancres
C)nodules
D)ulcers

Question 25

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is

A)the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
B)the cause of gonorrhea.
C)called the gonococcus.
D)virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 26

The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is ______.

A)opportunism
B)endogenous transfer
C)fomites
D)aerosol
E)indirect contact

Question 27

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?

A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent

Question 28

Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 days to counter a urinary tract infection caused by

A)Lactobacillus acidophilus
B) Clostridium difficile
C)Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
E) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 29

Which of the following is a causative agent of a discharge disease?

A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B)Escherichia coli
C)Leptospira interrogans
D)Schistosoma haematobium
E)Herpes simplex virus 2

Question 30

Herpes simplex-1

A)is exclusive to oral mucosa.
B)is exclusive to genitourinary tract.
C)confers immunity to herpes simplex 2.
D)is cleared by praziquantel.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 31

The Tuskegee Study gathered information on ______.

A)chlamydia
B)syphilis
C)HIV
D)genital herpes
E)gonorrhea

Question 32

Chlamydia trachomatis causes

A)nongonococcal urethritis in males.
B)cervicitis in females.
C)congenital conjunctivitis.
D)pelvic inflammatory disease in females.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 33

The secondary stage of syphilis

A)has no symptoms.
B)is when gummas develop in tissues.
C)is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.
D)occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
E)is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

Question 34

The chancre of syphilis

A)occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
B)develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
C)is very painful.
D)occurs during the tertiary stage.

Question 35

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?

A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent

Question 36

The rash of secondary syphilis

A)causes severe itching.
B)can last for months.
C)only lasts a few days.
D)does not impair function.
E)is intensely painful.

Question 37

Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis?

A)Arsenic
B)Mercury
C)Penicillin G
D)Vancomycin

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is incorrect?

A)It is a sexually transmitted infection.
B)Females can have asymptomatic infections.
C)Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications.
D)A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
E)Symptoms include painful urination and discharge.

Question 39

Treponema pallidum

A)has humans as the sole reservoir.
B)can cross the placenta.
C)has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
D)is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 40

The most common mode for the transmission of Schistosoma haematobium is ______.

A)fecal-oral route
B)contaminated water
C)opportunism
D)fomites
E)contaminated meat

Question 41

Which of the following statements regarding HSV-2 (genital herpes) is incorrect?

A)Virus is shed from active lesions only.
B)It can be reactivated by bacterial infections.
C)It can also infect oral mucosa.
D)It can become latent in the sacral ganglion.

Question 42

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.

Question 43

The key characteristic of the herpes family of viruses is

A)their ability to stay in host cells without causing symptoms.
B)their ability to cause organ death.
C)their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells.
D)their propensity to destroy bone marrow.

Question 44

The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______.

A)a hemolysin
B)an endotoxin
C)fimbriae
D)an exotoxin
E)a protease

Question 45

Trichomonas vaginalis is a ______.

A)fungus
B)helminth
C)bacterium
D)protozoan

Question 46

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is incorrect?

A)Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP.
B)It is an obligate parasite that needs host cells for growth.
C)Elementary bodies are the infectious form.
D)Reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
E)It is gram-negative.

Question 47

Candida albicans is a ______.

A)protozoan
B)bacterium
C)fungus
D)helminth

Question 48

The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.

Question 49

You, a 29 year old sexually active male, have discovered some small vesicles on the penis.They are fluid-filled, red, and very painful.This is the second time that you have seen this.The first time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them.The lesions went away--no doctor, no treatment.But here they are again.You think that perhaps you picked up this infection six months ago, the last time that you had sex.Identify the likely infection.

A)Chlamydia
B) HSV-2 infection
C) Candidiasis
D) Syphilis
E) HSV-1 infection

Question 50

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.

A)infertility
B)shingles
C)encephalitis
D)paralysis
E)kidney failure

Question 51

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes

A)genital lesions.
B)intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
C)symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
D)infection in neonates that contact lesions in the birth canal.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 52

Warts are caused by ______.

A)bacteria
B)nonenveloped RNA viruses
C)enveloped RNA viruses
D)nonenveloped DNA viruses
E)enveloped DNA viruses

Question 53

Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect?

A)They are sexually transmitted.
B)Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.
C)They are not common in the United States.
D)They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
E)They form large cauliflower-like masses called condyloma acuminata.

Question 54

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of ______.

A)Chlamydia infection
B)genital herpes
C)syphilis
D)gonorrhea
E)HIV infection

Question 55

The best way to directly observe Treponema pallidum is through ______ microscopy.

A)scanning electron
B)dark-field
C)fluorescent
D)phase contrast
E)bright-field

Question 56

Chancroid

A)presents with a hard chancre.
B)is very painful in both sexes.
C)is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.
D)is caused by a spirochete.

Question 57

The most commonly reported STI in the United States is ______.

A)Chlamydia infection
B)syphilis
C)gonorrhea
D)genital herpes
E)HIV infection

Question 58

As a couple, you have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility.After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that there is scar tissue in the uterine tubes.What disease is the most likely cause of this problem?

A)Leptospirosis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Trichomoniasis

Question 59

Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

Question 60

The most common cause of vaginitis is ______.

A)Staphlococcus aureus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Escherichia coli
E)Candida albicans

Question 61

Common spermicidal preparations have a toxic effect on Lactobacillus species and are associated with increased risk of urinary tract infection.Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

A)Lactobacillus can cause urinary tract infections when transferred from the reproductive system to the urinary system.
B)Use of spermicide must be carefully monitored so that it doesn't inadvertently enter the urinary tract.
C)Production of spermicidal chemicals must be rigorously controlled to avoid contamination with organisms like
D)Without the protective coating of Lactobacillus, organisms like
E)coli can attach to bladder epithelial cells.

Question 62

The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is ______.

A)genital herpes
B)HIV infection
C)syphilis
D)gonorrhea
E)Chlamydia infection

Question 63

You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year.You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby.What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?

A)Give you a high dose of antibiotics
B)Put the baby on a high dose of antivirals
C)Delivery by cesarean section
D)Have an abortion

Question 64

A health care provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can confirm that by

A)plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent.
B)identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined using a light microscope.
C)identifying the characteristic protozoans in a smear examined using a fluorescence microscope.
D)submitting a sample of the discharge for PCR amplification.
E)submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing.

Question 65

Which of the following statements regarding prostatitis is incorrect?

A)It is caused by GI tract biota.
B)It is accompanied by pain and frequent, difficult urination.
C)It can be chronic or acute.
D)The specific causative agent is readily cultured and identified.

Question 66

Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to ______.

A)HIV infection
B)infertility
C)cervical cancer
D)multiple births
E)low birthweight babies

Question 67

In the final trimester of pregnancy, your test results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so your doctor wants to prescribe an antibiotic.What organism is the likely culprit here?

A)Group B Streptococcus
B) Herpes simplex 2
C) Leptospira
D) Trichomonas

Question 68

The best method for culturing Chlamydia is

A)enrichment through several rounds of blood culture.
B)eukaryotic cell culture.
C)a minimal, defined selective medium.
D)to incubate the medium at slighty lower than body temperature.

Question 69

Which of the following statements regarding the Chlamydia life cycle is incorrect?

A)The elementary body is the infectious stage of Chlamydia.
B)Elementary bodies are released from the host cell to continue the infectious cycle.
C)Elementary bodies differentiate into reticulate bodies in the cell nucleus.
D)Reticulate bodies multiple by binary fission.

Question 70

There is a controversy over pre-teen girls receiving the HPV vaccine.Many parents think that giving this vaccine condones sexual activity at a young age.On the other hand, there are parents who do not want their kids to pick up STIs.Why is the vaccine recommended for 11-12 year old girls? Why not give the vaccine to young adult women who are just becoming sexually active?

A) The vaccine is cheaper for young girls since the dosage of virus in the vaccine is far less than that given for older women.
B)The immune system is strongest in pre-teen girls, so it is best to give the vaccine very early in life.
C) Once the young woman becomes infected with HPV, the virus gets into cells.It is then too late to vaccinate.
D) Very young women tend to get cancer from HPV, whereas women who are older get warts from HPV.

Question 71

Research published in January 2017 presented an estimate of the prevalence of HPV infection in American males at 45%.Adult males are an unvaccinated population.What are the consequences of HPV infection in males?

A)Males with HPV have a significantly higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer.
B)HPV-infected males should also be screened for gonorrhea, as the two often co-infect.
C)There are no long-term consequences; a course of antiviral medication will clear up the infection.
D)Males can develop genitourinary tract cancer from HPV infection.

Question 72

Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, chronic prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.Why might this be the case?

A)Mixed species biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics.
B)The side effects of the drug are too great.
C)It is a viral infection.
D)The infection is sporadic.

Question 73

Which of the following characteristics can distinguish vaginitis and vaginosis?

A)Causative agent
B)Presence of vaginal inflammation
C)Presence of discharge
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 74

The population most likely to be affected by catheter-associated urinary tract infections is

A)elderly women in a nursing home.
B)women who have recently delivered a baby by caesarean section.
C)urban sex workers.
D)women who abuse intravenous drugs.

Question 75

In which of the following ways are Chlamydia and viruses the same?

A)Both can remain dormant in the cell nucleus for long periods of time.
B)Both are best treated with antiviral chemotherapy.
C)Both have surface proteins that cannot be recognized by the immune system.
D)Both are able to reproduce only within a eukaryotic cell.

Question 76

Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.

Question 77

Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?

A)College age women
B)Neonates
C)Post-menopausal women
D)AIDS patients
E)Pregnant women

Question 78

Which of the following statements regarding vaginosis and vaginitis is correct?

A)Vaginitis may be caused by fungi or protozoans, whereas vaginosis is invariably a viral infection.
B)Both conditions can be prevented with vaccinations.
C)Both conditions result in a vaginal discharge with itching.
D)Vaginitis can complicate to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), but vaginosis cannot.

Question 79

The pathogenesis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is dependent upon phase variation.Which of the following statements concerning phase variation is incorrect?

A)Phase variation involves alterations to the structure of the fimbriae.
B)Phase variations results from genetic rearrangements in the Neisseria chromosome.
C)Phase variation allows Neisseria cells to escape immune detection.
D)Phase variation results in Neisseria cells adopting a pleomorphic morphology.

Question 80

Group B Streptococcus infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission.