Deck 16: Disorders in Immunity

Question 1

A chronic,local allergy such as hay fever is considered ______.

A) antibody-mediated
B) atopic
C) systemic anaphylactic
D) delayed
E) T-cell-mediated

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity
B) Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity
C) Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity
D) Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
E) Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category(ies)

A) type I only.
B) type I and type IV.
C) type IV only.
D) type I, type II, and type III.
E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Diarrhea
B) Rashes
C) Contact dermatitis
D) Sneezing
E) Rhinitis

Question 5

What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters the body for a second time?

A) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
B) Histamine acts on smooth muscle
C) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
D) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
E) Degranulation

Question 6

Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a(n)_____ hypersensitivity.

A) T-cell-mediated
B) antibody-mediated
C) immune complex-mediated
D) immediate
E) Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct.

Question 7

Allergies run in families because

A) the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined.
B) immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus.
C) immunoglobulins pass through breast milk.
D) the relative production of IgE is inherited.

Question 8

The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm,vascular permeability,and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ______.

A) histamine
B) leukotriene
C) platelet-activating factor
D) serotonin
E) prostaglandin

Question 9

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the _____ dose.

A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing

Question 10

The major category(ies)of hypersensitivity(ies)that typically involve(s)a B-cell immunoglobulin response include(s)

A) type I only.
B) type I and type IV.
C) type IV only.
D) type I, type II, and type III.
E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV.

Question 11

Which event represents the process of releasing chemical mediators?

A)
Histamine acting on smooth muscle
B) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
C)
Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
D) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
E) Degranulation

Question 12

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _____ dose.

A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing

Question 13

A systemic,sometimes fatal,reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is ______.

A) atopic
B) delayed
C) systemic anaphylaxis
D) antibody-mediated
E) T-cell-mediated

Question 14

Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a(n)______.

A) immunodeficiency
B) desensitization
C) autoimmune disease
D) hypersensitivity
E) transfusion reaction

Question 15

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

A) Injectant
B) Ingestant
C) Inhalant
D) Contactant

Question 16

Histamine causes all of the following except

A) relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
B) pruritis and headache.
C) increased sensitivity to pain.
D) wheal and flare reaction in skin.
E) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine.

Question 17

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A) Degranulation
B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D) Histamine acting on smooth muscle
E) Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Question 18

Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?

A) Anaphylaxis
B) Antibody-mediated
C) Immune complex-mediated
D) Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated.
E) Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated.

Question 19

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

A) Injectant
B) Contactant
C) Inhalant
D) Ingestant

Question 20

The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is ______.

A) humoralpathology
B) hemopathology
C) epidemiology
D) immunopathology
E) histopathology

Question 21

All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ______.

A) allergic asthma
B) systemic lupus erythematosus
C) drug allergies
D) eczema
E) anaphylaxis

Question 22

Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?

A) The Arthus reaction is a local response.
B) Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues.
C) It involves an immune complex reaction.
D) Serum sickness is a systemic response.
E) It involves production of IgE antibodies.

Question 23

What may result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?

A) Formation of autoantibodies
B) Host rejection of graft
C) Hypogammaglobulinemia
D) Graft versus host disease

Question 24

A person with O type blood

A) lacks A and B antigens.
B) is called a universal recipient.
C) lacks all of the alleles for ABO blood type.
D) could not have the Rh factor.

Question 25

The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh^- will have the ability to make which of the following antibodies?

A) Anti-B
B) Anti-A
C) Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh
D) Anti-A and anti-Rh
E) Anti-B and anti-Rh

Question 26

An antihistamine will

A) bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
B) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
C) block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.

Question 27

Human blood types involve all of the following except

A) MHC genes.
B) inheritance of two of three possible alleles.
C) ABO antigen markers.
D) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.
E) genetically determined glycoprotein markers.

Question 28

A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ______.

A) eczema
B) asthma
C) atopic dermatitis
D) anaphylaxis
E) allergic rhinitis

Question 29

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when

A) fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh⁺ mother.
B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
C) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus.
D) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother.
E) maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus.

Question 30

Epinephrine

A) inhibits the activity of lymphocytes.
B) reverses constriction of airways.
C) is an antihistamine.
D) causes desensitization.

Question 31

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause

A) recipient antibody activation of the complement cascade to attack the RBCs.
B) fever and anemia.
C) systemic shock and kidney failure.
D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 32

Corticosteroids will

A) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
B) bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
C) block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.

Question 33

A female who is Rh^-

A) can never have an Rh+ baby.
B) is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C) inherited two dominant genes.
D) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.

Question 34

A person who produces anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type ______.

A) Rh
B) A
C) AB
D) O
E) B

Question 35

All of the following are involved in type II hypersensitivity except ______.

A) IgM
B) complement
C) foreign cells
D) IgE
E) IgG

Question 36

Contact dermatitis involves

A) a sensitizing and provocative dose.
B) an allergen entering the skin.
C) T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines.
D) the production of itchy papules and blisters.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 37

Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor,

A) all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk.
B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
C) she can never again have a low risk pregnancy.
D) only future Rh- fetuses are at risk.
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 38

Which of the following is not a target for immune complex deposition?

A) Heart and lungs
B) Brain
C) Kidneys
D) Joints
E) Blood vessels and skin

Question 39

Allergic patients receiving small,controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ______.

A) sensitization
B) desensitization
C) degranulation
D) tissue matching

Question 40

Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in

A) hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) anaphylaxis.
C) serum sickness.
D) delayed hypersensitivity.

Question 41

What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity?

A) Graft versus host disease
B) Formation of autoantibodies
C) Hypogammaglobulinemia
D) Host rejection of graft

Question 42

All of the following are autoimmune diseases except

A) type I diabetes.
B) metastatic cancer.
C) systemic lupus erythematosus.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
E) Graves'disease.

Question 43

Autoimmunity is typically due to

A) autoantibodies and T cells.
B) a transfusion reaction.
C) IgE and mast cells.
D) graft rejection.
E) a deficiency in T-cell development.

Question 44

Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases?

A) Sequestered antigens
B) Forbidden clones
C) Molecular mimicry
D) The gut microbiome
E) All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations.

Question 45

A person who is Rh^- will have anti-Rh antibodies in his/her serum from early infancy.

Question 46

Degranulation of mast cells leads to
A. decreased mucus production.
B. constriction of blood vessels.
C. lymph node swelling.
D. constricted bronchioles.

Question 47

An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is

A) AIDS.
B) adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
C) DiGeorge syndrome.
D) agammaglobulinemia.
E) SCID.

Question 48

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except

A) multiple sclerosis.
B) tuberculin reaction.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) myasthenia gravis.
E) Graves'disease.

Question 49

The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.

Question 50

In multiple sclerosis,autoantibodies attack

A) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane.
B) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.
C) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle.
D) cells in thyroid follicles.
E) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system.

Question 51

DiGeorge syndrome is the result of

A) autoantibodies.
B) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
C) delayed hypersensitivity.
D) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
E) failure of B-cell development and maturity.

Question 52

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs)are due to

A) autoantibodies.
B) failure of B-cell development and maturity.
C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D) delayed hypersensitivity.
E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.

Question 53

Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage,shock,and death.

Question 54

In the theory for allergic desensitization,which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

A) IgD
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgM
E) IgG

Question 55

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against

A) cells in thyroid follicles.
B) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane.
C) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle.
D) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system.
E) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.

Question 56

All of the following can result in acquired immune deficiency except ______.

A) enzyme deficiency
B) stress
C) malnutrition
D) radiation treatment
E) bacterial infection

Question 57

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n) ______.

A) allograft
B) xenograft
C) isograft
D) hypograft
E) autograft

Question 58

During graft rejection,cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.

Question 59

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.

Question 60

Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.

Question 61

In systemic lupus erythematosis (called lupus),complexes of antibody and antigen form,and these immune complexes insert themselves into small blood vessels,joints,heart,and kidney,causing damage to the organ tissue.The course of the disease is unpredictable,with periods of illness alternating with remissions.How is lupus,a type III autoimmune disease,similar to the tuberculin reaction,a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction utilize IgE in their mechanisms.
B) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction are immediate hypersensitivities, occurring within a few hours.
C) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of antibody production.
D) The mechanism of both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of inflammatory chemicals released into tissue.

Question 62

Infection with enteroviruses,such as rotavirus and cytomegalovirus,has been implicated in the onset of type I diabetes.This area of research involves the study of ______.

A) molecular mimicry
B) forbidden clones
C) the gut microbiome
D) sequestered antigens

Question 63

The leukocyte histamine-release test (LHRT)measures the amount of histamine released from the patient's mast cells and eosinophils when exposed to a specific allergen.

Question 64

A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.

Question 65

Immunopathology is defined as

A) the study of immunodeficiencies.
B) the study of AIDS.
C) the study of autoimmune diseases.
D) the study of immune imbalance, whether hyper- or hypoactivity.

Question 66

High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of

A) a viral and/or fungal infection.
B) high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction.
C) overuse of dietary supplements.
D) a bacterial infection.

Question 67

Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.

Question 68

A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes.

Question 69

Autoimmune diseases and immunodeficiencies are studied and treated by immunopathologists.

Question 70

Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed,three immune components must be in place: complement,IgG,and IgM.

Question 71

Many men make antibodies to sperm,resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of sterility.What would be the likely origin of this autoimmune disease?

A) T helper cells erroneously identify sperm cells as foreign invaders, triggering the T cytotoxic cells to start killing sperm. Since sperm are not made until after puberty, the immune system cannot scan the antigens on the sperm for immune tolerance. After sperm are made and the immune system sees them, they are recognized as foreign.
C) Antigens on sperm cells are similar to antigens on a variety of bacteria like Streptococcus. After a strep throat caused by Streptococcus, the immune system produces antibodies to streptococcal antigens, which then cross react with sperm antigens and destroy them.
D) These antibodies are produced as a result of mutations in T lymphocytes, causing them to make large amounts of antibody.

Question 72

You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider.You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black,causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection.The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom,causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of specific antibody to the antigen.The horse serum is then purified before being given to humans.
A. a Staphylococcus infection related to the spider bite.
B. serum sickness.
C. a delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by cytotoxic T cells along with helper T cells.
D. Arthus reaction.
E. anaphylactic shock.

Question 73

The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.

Question 74

Predict why insect stings and medication injections more often provoke anaphylactic shock,as compared to other allergens found in food or in air.

A) The allergens go directly into the blood in large amounts, compared to allergens entering the digestive tract or respiratory tract.
B) Chemicals from insects cause a combination of antibody types to be produced, resulting in much larger amounts of total antibody.
C) Histamine is overproduced as a result of injected chemicals.
D) Chemicals injected as medications cause problems in immune response, resulting in a reduced immune coverage.

Question 75

AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.

Question 76

Place these events in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis in order,with 1 being the first step.
Sensitized T lymphocytes recognize the antigen and make cytokine chemicals.
Cytokine chemicals attract macrophages,dendritic cells,and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to the site of the antigen.
Chemicals are released from phagocytic cells and cytotoxic T cells,resulting in host tissue damage.
A chemical is absorbed through the skin.
The antigen is identified by a dendritic cell.

Question 77

An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is to

A) test for the allergen in the blood.
B) test for levels of IgE specific for the allergen.
C) test for high levels of IgG in the serum.
D) inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock.

Question 78

You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks.Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash,which has developed blisters over the last day or so.You had first worn them 2 to 3 days ago,and you did not launder them after buying them at the store.Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet,you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash.Which statement is true?

A) The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days.
B) The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin.
C) The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity.
D) The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation.

Question 79

The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.

Question 80

John,a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa,was in a car accident while traveling through a rural area.He was treated at a tiny rural hospital,and due to his loss of blood,he required a transfusion.John has B- blood type and has never received a transfusion before.Which statement is correct regarding this scenario?

A) He can be given types O or B, no matter whether Rh- or Rh+. At this point in time, he does not have anti-Rh antibody. O has no antigens on the blood cells, so he is also safe to receive that type in addition to his own B type.
B) He can safely receive O- blood even though he makes anti-A antibodies.
C) He can be given A+ blood type in addition to B+. Rh- means that he makes no antibody to Rh.
D) The preferred blood type to give John, in addition to his own B type blood, would be AB. Both types of blood have the B antigen on the cells, so they would correspond to his own antigens. As for Rh, he can receive only Rh- blood since he would have a reaction against Rh+.