Deck 7: Skeletal System
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Deck 7: Skeletal System
1
The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n)
A) long bone.
B) flat bone.
C) short bone.
D) irregular bone.
A) long bone.
B) flat bone.
C) short bone.
D) irregular bone.
D
2
In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______.
A) pituitary dwarfism; rickets
B) rickets; retardation of bone development
C) excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia
D) soft bones; rickets
A) pituitary dwarfism; rickets
B) rickets; retardation of bone development
C) excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia
D) soft bones; rickets
B
3
Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone?
A) Broad, flat skull bones
B) Phalanges of the fingers
C) Humerus
D) Femur
A) Broad, flat skull bones
B) Phalanges of the fingers
C) Humerus
D) Femur
A
4
Which one of the following is true?
A) Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix.
B) Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
C) Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts.
D) Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
A) Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix.
B) Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
C) Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts.
D) Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.
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5
The term "bone" can refer to
A) a tissue, an organ, or a type of cell.
B) a tissue or an organ only.
C) a tissue only
D) an organ only.
A) a tissue, an organ, or a type of cell.
B) a tissue or an organ only.
C) a tissue only
D) an organ only.
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6
A bone thickens
A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
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7
Which of the following groups of bones, based on shape, is associated with an incorrect example?
A) Long bones - forearm bones
B) Short bones - wrist and ankle bones
C) Flat bones - thigh bones
D) Irregular bones - vertebrae
A) Long bones - forearm bones
B) Short bones - wrist and ankle bones
C) Flat bones - thigh bones
D) Irregular bones - vertebrae
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8
Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation?
A) Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
B) Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.
C) Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
D) Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
A) Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
B) Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone.
C) Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
D) Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
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9
Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______.
A) bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells
B) mature bone cells; bone-forming cells
C) bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
D) bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells
A) bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells
B) mature bone cells; bone-forming cells
C) bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
D) bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells
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10
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found
A) on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
B) inside the medullary cavity.
C) on the outer surface of the diaphysis.
D) in the spaces of the spongy bone.
A) on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
B) inside the medullary cavity.
C) on the outer surface of the diaphysis.
D) in the spaces of the spongy bone.
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11
All of the following are functions of bones except
A) to protect certain internal organs.
B) to provide a source for red and white blood cells.
C) to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.
D) to store inorganic salts.
A) to protect certain internal organs.
B) to provide a source for red and white blood cells.
C) to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.
D) to store inorganic salts.
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12
A bone lengthens
A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
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13
Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ______ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ______.
A) thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum
B) growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity
C) thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone
D) growth hormone ; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate
A) thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum
B) growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity
C) thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone
D) growth hormone ; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate
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14
Articular cartilage is
A) fibrocartilage.
B) found only in the knees and elbows.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) hyaline cartilage.
A) fibrocartilage.
B) found only in the knees and elbows.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) hyaline cartilage.
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15
Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________.
A) spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid
B) osteons; trabeculae
C) trabeculae; osteons
D) osteocytes; no osteocytes
A) spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid
B) osteons; trabeculae
C) trabeculae; osteons
D) osteocytes; no osteocytes
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16
Which of the following is not found associated with spongy bone?
A) Trabeculae
B) Osteons
C) Canaliculi
D) Osteocytes
A) Trabeculae
B) Osteons
C) Canaliculi
D) Osteocytes
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17
Osteoclasts are
A) cells that secrete bone matrix.
B) mature bone cells that maintain the matrix.
C) immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes.
D) cells that break down bone matrix.
A) cells that secrete bone matrix.
B) mature bone cells that maintain the matrix.
C) immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes.
D) cells that break down bone matrix.
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18
A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?
A) Polydactyly
B) Osteoporosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Anemia
A) Polydactyly
B) Osteoporosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Anemia
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19
At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?
A) Birth
B) 5 years
C) 15 years
D) 25 years
A) Birth
B) 5 years
C) 15 years
D) 25 years
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20
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that
A) the bone is lengthening.
B) the bone is no longer lengthening.
C) the bone is increasing in diameter.
D) the bone has completed ossification.
A) the bone is lengthening.
B) the bone is no longer lengthening.
C) the bone is increasing in diameter.
D) the bone has completed ossification.
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21
It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the
A) diaphysis.
B) medullary cavity.
C) epiphyseal plate.
D) articular cartilage.
A) diaphysis.
B) medullary cavity.
C) epiphyseal plate.
D) articular cartilage.
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22
A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the
A) ethmoid bone
B) maxillae.
C) mandible.
D) vomer bone.
A) ethmoid bone
B) maxillae.
C) mandible.
D) vomer bone.
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23
The sternum is part of the
A) pectoral girdle.
B) pelvic girdle.
C) axial skeleton.
D) appendicular skeleton.
A) pectoral girdle.
B) pelvic girdle.
C) axial skeleton.
D) appendicular skeleton.
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24
The number of bones in the skeletal system is
A) the same for everyone.
B) more for males than females.
C) more for females than males.
D) variable.
A) the same for everyone.
B) more for males than females.
C) more for females than males.
D) variable.
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25
Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull?
A) Ethmoid
B) Sphenoid
C) Vomer
D) Frontal
A) Ethmoid
B) Sphenoid
C) Vomer
D) Frontal
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26
Red bone marrow functions in the formation of
A) red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
B) red blood cells only.
C) white blood cells only.
D) red and white blood cells only.
A) red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
B) red blood cells only.
C) white blood cells only.
D) red and white blood cells only.
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27
The hard palate is composed of the
A) sphenoid and ethmoid bones.
B) nasal conchae and vomer bones.
C) zygomatic and lacrimal bones.
D) maxillary and palatine bones.
A) sphenoid and ethmoid bones.
B) nasal conchae and vomer bones.
C) zygomatic and lacrimal bones.
D) maxillary and palatine bones.
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28
The thyroid hormone thyroxine ______.
A) increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
B) stimulates osteoclasts
C) stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate
D) removes calcium from bone
A) increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
B) stimulates osteoclasts
C) stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate
D) removes calcium from bone
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29
The pituitary gland is located in the
A) sella turcica.
B) cribriform plate.
C) sphenoidal sinus.
D) mandibular fossa.
A) sella turcica.
B) cribriform plate.
C) sphenoidal sinus.
D) mandibular fossa.
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30
The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of
A) the zygomatic and temporal bones.
B) the zygomatic and maxillary bones.
C) the maxillary and temporal bones.
D) the temporal and parietal bones.
A) the zygomatic and temporal bones.
B) the zygomatic and maxillary bones.
C) the maxillary and temporal bones.
D) the temporal and parietal bones.
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31
Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the
A) middle ear.
B) meninges.
C) frontal sinus.
D) maxillary sinus.
A) middle ear.
B) meninges.
C) frontal sinus.
D) maxillary sinus.
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32
Which of the following describes the function(s) of the skeletal system?
A) It interacts with muscles, providing movement.
B) It stores inorganic salts.
C) It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax.
D) All of the above describe skeletal system functions.
A) It interacts with muscles, providing movement.
B) It stores inorganic salts.
C) It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax.
D) All of the above describe skeletal system functions.
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33
Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______.
A) replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue
B) forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs
C) inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity
D) activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity
A) replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue
B) forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs
C) inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity
D) activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity
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34
Which is true of sex hormones?
A) They inhibit osteoblast activity.
B) They have no effect on bone.
C) They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.
D) Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.
A) They inhibit osteoblast activity.
B) They have no effect on bone.
C) They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.
D) Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.
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35
Which of the following is not a function of bones?
A) Contraction
B) Attachment for muscles
C) Blood cell production
D) Storage of inorganic salts
A) Contraction
B) Attachment for muscles
C) Blood cell production
D) Storage of inorganic salts
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36
Exercise ______ and _______ bones.
A) thickens; elongates
B) elongates; weakens
C) thickens; strengthens
D) thins; atrophies
A) thickens; elongates
B) elongates; weakens
C) thickens; strengthens
D) thins; atrophies
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37
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
A) cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B) cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C) thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.
A) cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B) cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C) thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.
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38
Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone?
A) Calcium oxalate
B) Hydroxyapatite
C) Calcium pyrophosphate
D) Calcium carbonate
A) Calcium oxalate
B) Hydroxyapatite
C) Calcium pyrophosphate
D) Calcium carbonate
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39
Bones
A) are not living tissue.
B) are multifunctional.
C) do not contribute to homeostasis.
D) have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts.
A) are not living tissue.
B) are multifunctional.
C) do not contribute to homeostasis.
D) have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts.
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40
The axial skeleton includes
A) the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B) the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C) the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D) the femur, tibia, and fibula.
A) the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B) the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C) the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D) the femur, tibia, and fibula.
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41
The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the
A) foot.
B) hand.
C) pelvis.
D) skull.
A) foot.
B) hand.
C) pelvis.
D) skull.
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42
Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence?
A) A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.
B) A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms.
C) Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms.
D) A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.
A) A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.
B) A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms.
C) Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms.
D) A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.
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43
The femur
A) is the longest bone in the body.
B) extends from the hip to the knee.
C) articulates with the patella.
D) is all of the above.
A) is the longest bone in the body.
B) extends from the hip to the knee.
C) articulates with the patella.
D) is all of the above.
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44
The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the
A) cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B) cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C) thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.
A) cervical and lumbar curvatures.
B) cervical and thoracic curvatures.
C) thoracic and sacral curvatures.
D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.
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45
Having extra digits is termed
A) polydactyly.
B) polyuria.
C) polyploidy.
D) polydipsia.
A) polydactyly.
B) polyuria.
C) polyploidy.
D) polydipsia.
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46
Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis?
A) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
B) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
C) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
D) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
A) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
B) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones.
C) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
D) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.
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47
Phalanges are
A) finger bones only.
B) toe bones only.
C) both finger and toe bones.
D) wrist and ankle bones.
A) finger bones only.
B) toe bones only.
C) both finger and toe bones.
D) wrist and ankle bones.
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48
Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone?
A) the ilium, the femur, and the pubis.
B) the ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis.
C) the ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis.
D) the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
A) the ilium, the femur, and the pubis.
B) the ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis.
C) the ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis.
D) the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
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49
The three borders of the scapula are called
A) the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders.
B) the superior, lateral, and medial borders.
C) the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity.
D) the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.
A) the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders.
B) the superior, lateral, and medial borders.
C) the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity.
D) the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.
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50
Height begins to decrease on average after age
A) 25.
B) 30.
C) 50.
D) 65.
A) 25.
B) 30.
C) 50.
D) 65.
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51
The capitulum and trochlea are located
A) at the proximal end of the humerus.
B) at the distal end of the humerus.
C) at the distal end of the ulna.
D) in the hand.
A) at the proximal end of the humerus.
B) at the distal end of the humerus.
C) at the distal end of the ulna.
D) in the hand.
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52
The atlas is one of the
A) lumbar vertebrae.
B) thoracic vertebrae.
C) cervical vertebrae.
D) sacral vertebrae.
A) lumbar vertebrae.
B) thoracic vertebrae.
C) cervical vertebrae.
D) sacral vertebrae.
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53
Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called
A) true ribs.
B) false ribs.
C) floating ribs.
D) vertebrochondral ribs.
A) true ribs.
B) false ribs.
C) floating ribs.
D) vertebrochondral ribs.
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54
A compound fracture
A) incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place.
B) is caused by a disease.
C) exposes the broken bone to the outside.
D) completely breaks the bone in more than one place.
A) incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place.
B) is caused by a disease.
C) exposes the broken bone to the outside.
D) completely breaks the bone in more than one place.
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55
Which of the following are components of the pelvic girdle?
A) hip bones.
B) coxal bones.
C) sacrum.
D) all of the above.
A) hip bones.
B) coxal bones.
C) sacrum.
D) all of the above.
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56
The clavicles
A) provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.
B) are the strongest bones in the body.
C) provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
D) are part of the axial skeleton.
A) provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.
B) are the strongest bones in the body.
C) provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
D) are part of the axial skeleton.
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57
Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
D) The female iliac bones are less flared.
A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
D) The female iliac bones are less flared.
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58
A sternal puncture is often used to obtain a sample of
A) fibroblasts.
B) osteoblasts.
C) red bone marrow.
D) yellow bone marrow.
A) fibroblasts.
B) osteoblasts.
C) red bone marrow.
D) yellow bone marrow.
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59
The acetabulum is
A) a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
B) a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
C) the prominence of the hip.
D) the anterior portion of the hip bone.
A) a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
B) a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
C) the prominence of the hip.
D) the anterior portion of the hip bone.
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60
Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D) osteoclasts and phagocytes.
A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D) osteoclasts and phagocytes.
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61
If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow.
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62
Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. She most likely has
A) polydactyly.
B) osteogenesis imperfecta.
C) osteoporosis.
D) a hematoma.
A) polydactyly.
B) osteogenesis imperfecta.
C) osteoporosis.
D) a hematoma.
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63
Bones in the human body are non-living.
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64
Which of the following increases the risk of developing osteoporosis?
A) Low intake of dietary calcium
B) Lack of physical exercise
C) Family history of the condition
D) All of the above
A) Low intake of dietary calcium
B) Lack of physical exercise
C) Family history of the condition
D) All of the above
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65
The thyroid gland secretes growth hormone.
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66
A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses.
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67
Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, or long.
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68
The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.
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69
The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium.
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70
The number of bones in most people is 206.
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71
Intervertebral discs are formed of skeletal muscle.
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72
Bone remodeling occurs as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts replace the bone.
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73
Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.
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74
Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following except
A) lordosis.
B) scoliosis.
C) increased height.
D) kyphosis.
A) lordosis.
B) scoliosis.
C) increased height.
D) kyphosis.
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75
Blood cell formation is called osteogenesis.
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76
The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.
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77
Fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth.
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78
Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue.
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79
Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens.
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80
Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of
A) rickets.
B) heart disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) menopause.
A) rickets.
B) heart disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) menopause.
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