Deck 24: The Adaptive Immune Response

Question 1

Complement molecule, C1 complex, will bind where to an IgG antibody:

A) V_L portion
B) F(ab')₂ portion
C) C_L portion
D) Fc portion
E) J-chain region

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following would be considered an aspect of the adaptive immune response?

A) interferons
B) lymphocytes
C) defensins
D) natural killer cells
E) neutrophils

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Antibodies belong to which protein super family

A) Globin protein
B) heat shock
C) immunoglobulin
D) major histocombatility complex
E) homeobox

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The five classes of antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD) that can be produced during an immune response are based on:

A) differences in C_L chain regions
B) differences in V_H chain regions
C) differences in C_H chain regions
D) differences in V_L chain regions
E) differences in all constant and variable chain regions

Question 5

Which of the following could be categorized as an example of humoral immunity?

A) T regulatory cells
B) T helper cells
C) antimalaria antibodies
D) T cytotoxic cells
E) macrophages

Question 6

The immune response elicited from each individual antigenic determinant found within an antigen is best described as:

A) monoclonal
B) mutliclonal
C) biclonal
D) polyclonal
E) triclonal

Question 7

An IgE antibody exposed to the endoproteolytic enzyme pepsin, followed by exposure to the endoproteolytic enzyme papain, will result in which structure in which order?

A) F(ab) and F(ab')₂ followed by 2 Fc
B) Fc and F(ab) followed by 2 F(ab')₂
C) Fc and F(ab')₂ followed by 2 F(ab)
D) 2 F(ab')₂ followed by 2 F(ab) and 2 Fc
E) 2 Fc and 2 F(ab')₂ followed by 4 F(ab)

Question 8

In a radial immunodiffusion assay (RID), immunoprecipitation rings will be created within the agar dish based on:

A) equivalence point
B) antibody isotype
C) antibody allotype
D) polyclonal antigen preparation
E) Fc binding of antigens

Question 9

A threshold dose of antigen is best described as the dose needed to:

A) generate an optimal immune response
B) only activate a few immune cells
C) generate a T-cell response only
D) induce immune complement response
E) induce immunological tolerance

Question 10

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest, antigen-specific immune response within a human?

A) Plasmodium falciparium outer membrane protein
B) HIV RNA genome
C) herpes DNA genome
D) Streptococcus mutans, slime polysaccharide coating made of repeating sugars
E) Escherichia coli, plasma membrane

Question 11

People who survived infection with Yersinia pestis during the fourteenth century European epidemic found themselves immune when reexposed to:

A) influenza
B) syphilis
C) smallpox
D) plague
E) pneumonia

Question 12

The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n):

A) hapten
B) clonotope
C) aggretope
D) epitope
E) naïve antigen

Question 13

Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest, antigen-specific immune response if injected intravenously into a mouse?

A) a sterile glucose solution
B) equine serum albumin
C) complement proteins from another mouse
D) red blood cells from a transfusion compatible species
E) mouse antigoat antibodies

Question 14

Anti-HIV antibodies are best at binding to viral proteins when:

A) the virus is within the cytoplasm of an infected T cell
B) the virus is within the nucleus of an infected T cell
C) the virus is within the cytoplasm of an infected macrophage
D) the virus is within the nucleus of an infected macrophage
E) the virus is extracellular within the bloodstream

Question 15

The difference between an antibody allotype and isotype is:

A) isotype is the difference in constant regions; allotype are differences within isotypes
B) allotype is the difference in constant regions; isotype are differences within allotypes
C) isotype is the difference in constant regions; allotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions
D) isotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions; allotypes are differences within isotypes
E) isotype are alternations in the hypervariable regions of one person; allotypes are alternations in the hypervariable regions among a species

Question 16

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is most commonly caused by:

A) chromosome 22 trisomy
B) Y-linked inherited hypermetabolism
C) X-linked inherited enzyme or receptor deficiency
D) chromosome 7 deletion
E) XXY inheritance

Question 17

The chickenpox vaccine is created with an attenuated virus and the rabies vaccine with an inactivated virus; this means:

A) chickenpox virus is a subunit vaccine, rabies virus is a genetic vaccine
B) chickenpox virus is a genetic vaccine, rabies virus is a subunit vaccine
C) chickenpox virus is a nonfunctional form, rabies virus is living but weakened
D) chickenpox virus is a subunit vaccine, rabies virus is nonfunctional
E) chickenpox virus is a living weakened form, rabies virus is nonfunctional

Question 18

Edward Jenner demonstrated the first example of immunological cross-protection because:

A) the smallpox virus was nonpathogenic
B) the cowpox virus only affected milkmaids
C) cowpox and smallpox viruses were metabolically different
D) cowpox virus was structurally similar to the smallpox virus
E) plague survivors were immune to smallpox

Question 19

Of the following cells, which could be considered a "professional" antigen-presenting cell?

A) neutrophil
B) T lymphocyte
C) natural killer cell
D) dendritic cell
E) fibroblast

Question 20

Dinitrophenol is considered a hapten when injected into a mouse, this means that it:

A) is an incomplete antigen
B) has a molecular weight less than 1,000
C) will bind to antibodies
D) needs a carrier protein to become immunogenic
E) all of the above

Question 21

A baby will receive antibodies from the mother before birth through the umbilical cord and then through the breast milk after birth, what classes of antibodies are received, respectively?

A) IgG and IgA
B) IgM and IgD
C) IgG and IgM
D) IgM and IgA
E) IgE and IgG

Question 22

Immunization with the childhood DPT vaccine (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) protects against subsequent exposure to tetanus by:

A) stopping isotype switching of B cells from IgM to IgA
B) preloading antigen-presenting cells
C) stimulating quick inflammation upon future exposure
D) producing life-spanning antitetanus IgE antibodies
E) generating tetanus specific memory B cells

Question 23

Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterial STD that lives intracellularly within human host cells; what immune response would most likely prevail in this infection?

A) more T_H2 cells than T_H1 cells
B) more T_H1 cells than T_H2 cells
C) equal ratio of T_H1 cells to T_H2 cells
D) more B cells than CD8 cells
E) mostly antibodies

Question 24

Anti-Streptococcus antibodies found in the serum of a patient during a primary antibody response differ from the antibodies produced during a secondary response to the same antigen because of:

A) VDJ recombination
B) affinity maturation
C) class switching
D) MHC processing
E) antigen adaptation

Question 25

The secondary signal needed from a T cell for a B cell to differentiate into a plasma cell, is the crosslink between:

A) CD8 (on T_C cell) with MHC I (on B cell)
B) CD4 (on T_H cell) with CD40 (on B cell)
C) MHC II (on T_C cell) with CD4 (on B cell)
D) CD8 (on T_C cell) with CD40 (on B cell)
E) CD154 (on T_H cell) with CD40 (on B cell)

Question 26

The inflammatory antibody of someone undergoing an allergic reaction to cat dander would be found primarily:

A) in the lymph nodes
B) free-floating in the blood stream
C) bound to mast cells and basophils
D) in mucus secretions
E) attached to T cells

Question 27

Positive selection in T-cell education refers to:

A) T-cell receptors (TCR) that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins
B) CD8 receptors that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins
C) T-cell receptors (TCR) that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins
D) CD4 that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins
E) B-cell receptors that bind weakly to T-cell receptors

Question 28

The antigen binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be:

A) TCR
B) MHC II
C) MHC I
D) CD4
E) CD8

Question 29

Capping of B-cell receptors on the surface of an antigen-exposed B cell immediately causes what to occur?

A) VDJ gene switching, recombination, and hypermutation
B) neutrophil phagocytosis of the antigen
C) complement cascade signaling and antigen destruction
D) cell signaling cascade inducing cell proliferation and differentiation
E) T helper cell proliferation and T regulatory cell differentiation

Question 30

A Herpesviridae viral infection would most likely stimulate which immune cells for clearance of the infection?

A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) B cells
D) mast cells
E) macrophages

Question 31

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by weakness of the skeletal muscles due to antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies; thymectomy is a successful treatment for this condition in some patients because it:

A) removes all auto-reactive B cells from the body
B) primes APC to reverse their response to self tissue
C) neutralizes the autoantibodies from the body
D) produces proteins to bind the autoantibodies before reaching their target
E) prevents further miseducation of T-cell populations

Question 32

An example of an antigen that could stimulate naïve B-cell proliferation and differentiation without the help of a T cell would be:

A) Proteus vulgaris, lipopolysaccharide molecule
B) Yersinia pestis, plasmid DNA molecule
C) Staphylococcus aureus, protein A molecule
D) Bacillus anthracis, anthrax toxin molecule
E) Escherichia coli, porin protein molecule

Question 33

In immunology, the term "clonal selection" best refers to:

A) the multiple types of cells needed to generate an antigenic specific response
B) the ability of one B cell to produce multiple isotypes of antibodies
C) the ability of specific lymphocyte subsets to proliferate upon exposure to a specific epitope
D) the ability of memory cells to induce a quick secondary antibody response
E) the process of opsonizing antigen for rapid phagocytic degradation

Question 34

RAG1 and RAG2 are enzymes that control gene splicing on B-cell antibody genes, which order are segments worked on in the creation of the heavy-chain gene segment?

A) VD spliced together, then J, then C
B) DJ spliced together, then V
C) VJ spliced together, then D
D) VC spliced together, then D, then J
E) VDJ segments are all spliced together simultaneously

Question 35

Bacteremia is a condition where live bacteria enter the bloodstream, but not the cells of the body; which form of processing would occur to stimulate a cell-mediated immune response?

A) bacterial peptide transported from cytoplasm to rER for presentation on MHC I
B) endocytosis by APC followed by presentation on MHC II
C) neutrophil phagocytosis with presentation on Fc receptor
D) cytotoxic T-cell endocytosis for presentation on CD8 receptor
E) B-cell capping for presentation on the B-cell receptor

Question 36

Genes for the heavy-chain-antibody production consist of __________ segments, whereas genes for the light-chain-antibody production consist of __________ segments.

A) VJ; VDJ
B) VDJ; VDJ
C) VJ; VJ
D) VDJ; VJ
E) VDJ; VD

Question 37

The secondary signal needed for T_H0 helper cells to differentiate into either T_H1 cells or T_H2 cells is the crosslink between:

A) CD154 (on T_H0 helper cells) and CD40 (on APC cell)
B) MHC I (on T_H0 helper cells) and B7 (on APC cell)
C) CD4 (on T_H0 helper cells) and MHC II (on APC cell)
D) CD8 (on T_H0 helper cells) and MHC I (on APC cell)
E) CD28 (on T_H0 helper cells) and B7 (on APC cell)

Question 38

A complete T-cell receptor on a helper T cell contains both the antigen binding receptor molecule and what other protein for signal transduction?

A) CD8
B) CD3 complex
C) MHC I
D) MHC II
E) CD28

Question 39

Laboratory isolation of an anti-Streptococcus antibody was found to bind to ten Streptococcus pyogenes at one time, the antibody isolated was:

A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgD
E) IgE

Question 40

During the course of an intestinal infection with Salmonella enteritidis, the B cells undergo class switching; what switching is most likely to occur and what causes the switch?

A) IgD to IgE; B-cell cytokines
B) IgM to IgA; T-cell cytokines
C) IgG to IgM; B-cell cytokines
D) IgA to IgG; T-cell cytokines
E) IgD to IgM; T-cell cytokines

Question 41

A mutation that caused a person to have an ineffective complement C6 protein would have a direct effect on formation of:

A) complement-antibody complex
B) C3 convertase
C) C3b opsonins for phagocytosis
D) membrane attack complex
E) C5 convertase

Question 42

Why is type AB blood considered to be the "universal recipient"? Explain what this means in terms of antigen and antibodies present.

Question 43

In 2004, doctors successfully used gene therapy with a severely defective leukemia virus to insert a cytokine receptor gene needed for T-cell development into the bone marrow of four children with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). What is SCID and how did doing this procedure address this disease?

Question 44

How can a person who has taken penicillin for a childhood ear infection later develop an allergy to penicillin when prescribed that drug again?

Question 45

A surgical patient infected with a bloodborne Staphylococcus would initially produce an anti-staphylococcal antibody of the IgM class. Why is that?

Question 46

Current medical studies have shown that T_H1/T_H2 cell ratio can be linked to infertility issues in women suffering recurrent reproductive failure (higher levels of T_H1 found in these women). What does a T_H1/T_H2 cell ratio mean and what part of adaptive immunity is being more activated in these women?

Question 47

An activated T_C cell trying to kill off influenza infection in the lungs would:

A) release proinflammatory cytokines throughout the entire lung
B) produce monoclonal anti-influenza antibodies
C) activate B cells to make influenza-specific plasma cells
D) bind to the infected host cells then release perforin and granzymes
E) travel to the thymus and undergo positive selection

Question 48

Describe the structure of a typical IgG antibody, including the F(ab')₂ and Fc portions.

Question 49

Inhalation of allergenic pollen in a susceptible person causes the induction of what primary event triggering an allergy reaction?

A) crosslinking of IgE sensitized mast cells
B) immediate anaphylaxis
C) binding to sensitized T cytotoxic cells
D) increased cAMP levels
E) immediate leukotriene release

Question 50

How does increasing cellular telomerase activity within a memory B cell increase the lifespan of that cell and why is this important?

Question 51

A 30-year old woman presented in the emergency room with hives all over her body. After a full examination it was determined that the zoo she had visited that morning caused the reaction. What was the most likely cause of this response?

A) type I hypersensitivity reaction
B) type II hypersensitivity reaction
C) type III hypersensitivity reaction
D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction
E) type V hypersensitivity reaction

Question 52

Mycobacteria sp. have evolved a mechanism to evade adaptive immunity by:

A) creating autoantibodies against activated T-cell populations
B) triggering T- and B-cell apoptosis
C) hiding within red blood cells of the body (similar to malarial infection)
D) inducing the production of anti-inflammatory cytokines (IL-6 and IL-10)
E) producing phagocytic chemorepellants and paralyzing neutrophils

Question 53

Regulation of complement destruction of normal body cells is controlled by:

A) CD8, serum factor C3b, and serum albumin
B) CD58, serum factor H, and decay-accelerating factor
C) CD4, serum factor Bb, and decay-accelerating factor
D) MHC I, serum factor C5a, and serum lipoprotein
E) MHC II, serum albumin, and T regulatory cells

Question 54

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) takes up residence in what immune cell using which receptor(s)?

A) ACP cells; MHC I and II receptors
B) T_C cells; CD8 receptor
C) T_H cells; CD4 receptor
D) B cells; CD40 receptor
E) T_H0 cells; TCR receptor

Question 55

Staphylococcal exfoliative toxin (exoliatin A) reacts in the human body as a superantigen, intoxication with this means:

A) polyclonal T-cell stimulation by overriding the normal route of antigen presentation
B) monoclonal B-cell stimulation without T-cell signaling
C) direct overactivation of T_H1 cells causing T_C cell response only
D) dramatic downregulation in genes controlling all cells producing pro-inflammatory cytokines
E) decreased antigen presentation by APC followed by autoantibody formation

Question 56

A patient with recurring nut allergies enrolls in an experimental desensitization trail at the local allergy clinic; what should this patient expect?

A) injection of large doses of suspected antigen over the next few months, in hopes to begin producing antiallergen IgA
B) injection of small doses of antiantigen antibody over the next few months, in hopes to begin producing antiantibody IgE
C) injection of small doses of suspected antigen over the next few months, in hopes to begin producing antiallergen IgG
D) injection of medium doses of suspected antigen over the next few days, in hopes to begin producing antiallergen IgM
E) injection of medium doses of antiantigen antibody over the next few years, in hopes of removing all antiantigen IgE

Question 57

If you are infected with the cold virus one year, how come you can catch a cold again the next year if your immune system is working properly?

Question 58

Why are macrophages, monocytes, mast cells, and dendritic cells considered "professional" antigen-presenting cells whereas fibroblasts are considered "nonprofessional" APCs.

Question 59

The binding of released histamine to a H1 (histamine 1) receptor during an allergic attack induces a proinflammatory state through which pathway(s)?

A) classical complement pathway
B) liopoxygenase pathway and cycloxygenase pathway
C) signal transduction pathway causing IL-2 production
D) lectin complement pathway
E) epinephrine producing pathway

Question 60

Omenn syndrome is an immune disorder associated with mutations in the recombination activating genes (RAG1 and RAG2) needed for gene switching in lymphocytes. What effect would this mutation have on B cells, T cells, and the overall health of the adaptive immune response?

Question 61

Some patients suffering from bare lymphocyte syndrome (BLS; a rare immunodeficiency) have a genetic mutation in their TAP1/TAP2 genes causing the production of a defective TAP transporter. Describe what effect this has on antigen processing and in what cells.

Question 62

Yersinia enterocolitica is an example of a bacterium that can outsmart the adaptive immune system by inhibiting proinflammatory cytokine production signal transduction pathways. Give one example of another microbe that can outsmart this system and discuss why this is of benefit from the microbial perspective.

Question 63

List the steps for the classical complement cascade. Discuss two ways this cascade results in microbial destruction.

Question 64

Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis but NOT for atopic asthma?

Question 65

X-linked hyper IgM syndrome (XHIM) is an immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations of the gene encoding CD154. Why is this disease characterized by recurrent infections (starting in childhood) and elevated serum levels of IgM?

Question 66

Based on the Special Topic reading 24.1, would taking probiotic health supplements be good for your immunity?

Question 67

Would treating a person infected with HIV that has recently developed AIDS using a helper T-cell transfusion work? Why or why not?

Question 68

A patient presents in the emergency room with large red lesions up and down his arms. His case history reveals that he works for a gardening company and this rash most likely developed after clearing a weedy bank two days prior. The resident on duty concludes that the rash is due from poison ivy exposure. Immunologically speaking what is going on in this man's body and what type of immune response is he experiencing?

Question 69

If a person was unable to undergo negative selection during T-cell education, what is T-cell education and why would this be a severe immune problem?

Question 70

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic, inflammatory autoimmune disorder affecting the skin, joints, kidneys, and other organs. A hallmark of lupus is the production of an array of autoantibodies. Some scientists believe that the autoantibody formation seen in lupus is a result of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) molecular mimicry. What do these scientists believe has happened in the case of lupus? Give one example as evidential support.