Deck 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization

Question 1

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly varied from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

A)variable region.
B)joining region.
C)constant region.
D)light region.
E)hinge region.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Lymphocyte maturation involves

A)hormonal signals that initiate development.
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C)T cells maturing in the thymus.
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The major histocompatability complex is

A)glycoproteins,called MHC antigens,found on all body cells.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins.
C)found on the third chromosome.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Plasma cells

A)secrete antibodies.
B)function in allergic reactions.
C)directly destroy target cells.
D)suppress immune reactions.
E)activate B cells and other T cells.

Question 5

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

A)antibodies.
B)sensitized T cells.
C)activated macrophages.
D)plasma cells.
E)bursa cells.

Question 6

Lymphocytes

A)possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
B)have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
C)gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
D)develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 7

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

A)epitope.
B)hapten.
C)antigen binding site.
D)variable region.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 8

What type of cells secrete antibodies?

A)B cells
B)cytotoxic T cells
C)plasma cells
D)helper T cells
E)antigen-presenting cells

Question 9

Acquired specific immunity involves the response of

A)skin barriers.
B)B and T lymphocytes.
C)lysozyme.
D)mucous membranes.
E)interferon.

Question 10

Destruction of lymphocytes with self specificity is called

A)clonal deletion.
B)proliferation.
C)clonal selection.
D)differentiation.
E)hypersensitivity.

Question 11

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a(n)

A)epitope.
B)hapten.
C)antigen binding site.
D)variable region.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 12

Class II MHC genes code for

A)certain secreted complement components.
B)self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
C)all HLA antigens.
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 13

Properties of effective antigens include all the following except

A)are foreign to the immune system.
B)have molecular complexity.
C)are large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
D)have large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
E)are cells or large,complex molecules.

Question 14

Class I MHC genes code for

A)certain secreted complement components.
B)self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes.
C)all HLA antigens.
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 15

The histocompatibility complex proteins function in

A)recognition of self.
B)antibody proliferation.
C)B-cell maturation.
D)T-cell maturation.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 16

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

A)are the result of genetic expression.
B)function in recognition of self molecules.
C)receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
D)aid in cellular development.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 17

Helper T cells

A)secrete antibodies.
B)function in allergic reactions.
C)directly destroy target cells.
D)suppress immune reactions.
E)activate B cells and other T cells.

Question 18

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except

A)two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B)two identical light polypeptide chains.
C)disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D)four antigen binding sites.
E)a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

Question 19

MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except

A)leukocytes.
B)eosinophils.
C)epithelial cells.
D)red blood cells.
E)islet of Langerhans cells.

Question 20

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n)

A)PAMP.
B)marker.
C)hapten.
D)antibody.
E)antigen.

Question 21

Antigen-presenting cells

A)include dendritic cells.
B)include macrophages.
C)engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D)hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 22

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are

A)IgM only.
B)IgG only.
C)IgD only.
D)IgM and IgD.
E)IgD and IgE.

Question 23

Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one epitope.

A)variable
B)Fab
C)Fc
D)terminal
E)hinge

Question 24

Which of the following is not a property of B cells?

A)produce plasma cells and memory cells
B)low numbers circulating in the blood
C)require antigen presented with MHC proteins
D)receptors called immunoglobins
E)mature in the bone marrow

Question 25

T-cell response to T-cell-Dependent antigens requires

A)typically a protein antigen.
B)binding of T-cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage.
C)binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen.
D)interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 26

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.

Question 27

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response

Question 28

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A)is called the crystallizable fragment
B)forms the antigen binding sites
C)contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells
D)contains an effector molecule that can fix complement
E)determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs

Question 29

An activated T_H cell produces ___ which is a growth factor for T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells.

A)interleukin-1
B)interleukin-2
C)interleukin-12
D)antiserum
E)complement

Question 30

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)memory response

Question 31

During presentation of APC-bound antigen,macrophages and dendritic cells secrete the cytokine,_____,that activates T helper cells.

A)interferon
B)interleukin-1
C)interleukin-2
D)histamine
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 32

_____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgA
D)IgD
E)IgE

Question 33

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

A)IgM only
B)IgG only
C)IgD only
D)IgM and IgG
E)IgE and IgA

Question 34

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response

Question 35

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called

A)superantigens.
B)heterophilic antigens.
C)allergens.
D)autoantigens.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 36

Superantigens are

A)body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B)cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C)bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D)those that evoke allergic reactions.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 37

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus,saliva,colostrum,and other body secretions is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.

Question 38

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?

A)neutralization
B)opsonization
C)complement fixation
D)agglutination
E)anamnestic response

Question 39

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.

Question 40

All of the following are characteristics of IgM except

A)has 10 antigen binding sites.
B)contains a central J chain.
C)is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D)can serve as a B-cell receptor.
E)is a dimer.

Question 41

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

A)removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B)treatment with formalin,heat,or radiation.
C)passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D)long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 42

An example of natural active immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 43

Immunotherapy is the

A)use of antitoxins.
B)use of immune serum globulin.
C)conferring of passive immunity.
D)administering of preformed antibodies.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 44

Which of the following is not a target for T_C cells?

A)bacteria
B)virus-infected cells
C)cancer cells
D)human transplanted liver
E)pig transplanted heart

Question 45

An example of natural passive immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 46

An example of artificial active immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 47

When an antibody is covering the foreign microorganism then complement may be activated via this___ pathway.

A)classical
B)lectin
C)alternative
D)interleukin

Question 48

Antitoxins

A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.

Question 49

The beauty of specific immunity is the production of ____ that provide long-lasting protection.

A)antibodies
B)plasma cells
C)T helper cells
D)memory cells
E)phagocytotic cells

Question 50

Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and are cells that attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK)cells

Question 51

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A)adjuvant
B)booster
C)antibodies to toxin
D)gamma globulin
E)"trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Question 52

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.

Question 53

Edward Jenner's work involved

A)inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B)development of passive immunotherapy.
C)development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D)immunization using a related,less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 54

Cytotoxic T cells

A)are activated by antigens.
B)lack specificity for antigen.
C)secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D)secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 55

Live,attenuated vaccines

A)include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B)include the measles,mumps,rubella vaccine (MMR).
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 56

What process provides many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens?

A)antigen expression
B)antibody production
C)clonal expansion
D)antigen presentation
E)opsonization

Question 57

All nucleated cells contain___.

A)class I MHC
B)class II MHC
C)secretory antibodies
D)IgE receptors
E)IgM molecules

Question 58

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)utilize DNA strands that will produce the antigen.

Question 59

High titers of specific antibodies are components of

A)specific immune globulin (SIG).
B)gamma globulin.
C)immune serum globulin (ISG).
D)attenuated vaccines.
E)toxoids.

Question 60

The most significant cells in graft rejection are

A)helper T cells.
B)suppressor T cells.
C)cytotoxic T cells.
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells.
E)natural killer (NK)cells.

Question 61

Activation of B cells occurs when antigen binds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

Question 62

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.

Question 63

Antibody molecules circulate in lymph,blood,and tissue fluids.

Question 64

The secondary response to an antigen is faster and bigger than the primary response.

Question 65

During which response to the antigen do we display a latent period of no secretory antibody synthesis?

A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
E)memory response

Question 66

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

Question 67

What is the proper order of steps for B-cell activation?

A)binding,processing/presentation,cooperation/recognition,activation,differentiation,expansion
B)processing/presentation,activation,differentiation,cooperation/recognition,binding,expansion
C)activation,expansion,differentiation,processing/presentation,cooperation/recognition,binding
D)binding,cooperation/recognition,processing/presentation,differentiation,activation,expansion

Question 68

Which form of immunity is Joseph developing by having this infection?

A)active natural
B)passive natural
C)active artificial
D)passive artificial

Question 69

What previous lines of defense have been breached in Marie's case?

A)Only the first line of defense has been breached.Her second line of defense is fighting off this infection.
B)No lines of defense have yet been breached.Her intact barrier system is keeping her kidneys from becoming infected.
C)The second line of defense has been breached.Her lymphocytes are now being challenged by this infection.
D)There are no lines of defense for this sort of infection.

Question 70

Antibodies directed to alloantigen from one organism often cross-react with an alloantigen from another organism.

Question 71

The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.

Question 72

If Joseph's mother had previously had her son vaccinated against chickenpox,what form of immunity would he have had?

A)active natural
B)passive natural
C)active artificial
D)passive artificial

Question 73

The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.

Question 74

Which of the following explanations tells you why Joseph became infected with chickenpox in the first place?

A)Joseph should not have been infected because he had passive natural immunity from breastfeeding as a baby.
B)His mother should have had gamma globulin administered so he would have passive artificial immunity.
C)There is no way Joseph could have been protected from the infection,since he did not receive active artificial immunity through the form of a vaccine.
D)Joseph probably has a primary immunodeficiency disease,otherwise there is no reason humans should be infected with chickenpox.

Question 75

Which part of the IgG molecule will bind with the

A)Fab
B)Fc
C)heavy chain
D)light chain
E)coli antigen in Marie's body?

Question 76

After secreting antibodies during an immune response,plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.

Question 77

Knowing that Marie's primary organism causing her UTI is

A)T helper cells
B)T cytotoxic cells
C)natural killer cells
D)B cells
E)coli,which cells are being activated by this infection?

Question 78

When Joseph's mom expresses concern over Judith becoming reinfected,what is an appropriate response?

A)"Your concerns are valid,but Judith developed an active natural immunity to chickenpox because she's already been infected,so you don't need to worry."
B)"Your concerns are valid,and there is a high likelihood that Judith will become infected again.We should probably administer the vaccine."
C)"There's no way to protect Judith from becoming reinfected except to keep her at least 15 feet from Joseph at all times."
D)"There's no way of knowing how chickenpox infection works,or how transmission functions.I wish there was something more we could tell you."

Question 79

One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes but the antibodies will all have the same specificity.

Question 80

Clonal selection can be stimulated by foreign or self antigens.