Deck 1: Essentials of Geography

Question 1

The main methodology governing geographic inquiry

A) is behavioral analysis.
B) involves spatial analysis.
C) uses chronological organization.
D) is field work.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, the Cienega de Santa Clara, an ecotourism destination on the Colorado River delta, is best described within which of the five themes?

A) location
B) place
C) human-Earth relationships
D) movement
E) regions

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following most accurately characterizes the goal of geography?

A) The production of maps.
B) Memorization of the names of places on world and regional maps.
C) Memorization of the imports and exports of a country.
D) Understanding distributions and movements across Earth.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, areas that display uniform characteristics refer to

A) location.
B) place.
C) human-Earth relationships.
D) movement.
E) regions.

Question 5

The science of physical geography is based on the realization that

A) nature is homogenous and spatially undifferentiated.
B) knowledge of spatial distributions is of little value in understanding nature.
C) nature can best be described and understood as a set of interrelated components through which matter and energy flow.
D) humans have no significant impact on the physical phenomena that occur in nature.

Question 6

Which is not true of geographers?

A) They are Earth systems scientists.
B) They are primarily concerned with place names.
C) They are concerned with spatial and temporal relationships.
D) They use spatial analysis.

Question 7

Which of the following best describes the field of physical geography?

A) Understanding soil development.
B) Mapping of rock types.
C) The study of weather.
D) The spatial analysis of all the physical elements, processes, and systems that make up the environment.

Question 8

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, latitude and longitude refer to

A) location.
B) place.
C) human-Earth relationships.
D) movement.
E) regions.

Question 9

"Geography" literally means

A) place memorization.
B) the study of rocks.
C) map making.
D) to write (about) Earth.

Question 10

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, communication and diffusion refer to

A) location.
B) place.
C) human-Earth relationships.
D) movement.
E) regions.

Question 11

Which of the following comprise the fundamental duality in the field of geography?

A) physical versus human/cultural
B) physical versus economic
C) economic versus political
D) political versus environmental

Question 12

Which of the following terms characterizes the discipline of geography?

A) eclectic
B) integrative
C) unscientific
D) both eclectic and integrative

Question 13

The word spatial refers to

A) the nature and character of physical space.
B) items that relate specifically to society.
C) things that are unique and special.
D) eras of time.

Question 14

Geography

A) is not a science.
B) does not use systems analysis.
C) does not consider process in explaining systems.
D) is derived from geo and graphein; literally, "to write Earth."

Question 15

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, resource management and sustainable growth refer to

A) location.
B) place.
C) human-Earth relationships.
D) movement.
E) regions.

Question 16

A physical geographer would likely not study

A) the impact of Hurricane Sandy's landfall along the U.S. East Coast.
B) the effects of the removal of dams on the Elwha River in Washington.
C) the 9.0 magnitude earthquake in Japan in 2011.
D) The diffusion of various religions from the so-called Middle East.

Question 17

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, your home address is best described within which of the themes?

A) location
B) place
C) human-Earth relationships
D) movement
E) regions

Question 18

Geography is described as

A) an Earth science.
B) a human science.
C) a physical science.
D) a spatial science.

Question 19

Relative to the five fundamental themes of geography, characteristics of a site refers to

A) location.
B) place.
C) human-Earth relationships.
D) movement.
E) regions.

Question 20

Shale gas extraction using hydraulic fracturing falls within which of the five themes?

A) location
B) place
C) human-Earth relationships
D) movement
E) regions

Question 21

Which of the following is true of models?

A) They complicate our understanding of Earth system science.
B) They perfectly replicate the real world, but at a different scale.
C) They are simplified, idealized representations of the real world.
D) They are never used in physical geography because of their inherent limitations.

Question 22

Which of the following is the most strongly supported by experimental and observational evidence?

A) speculation
B) hypothesis
C) educated guess
D) theory

Question 23

According to the text, the three inorganic Earth realms are the

A) hydrosphere, lithosphere, and atmosphere.
B) thermosphere, lithosphere, heterosphere.
C) atmosphere, geoid, and homosphere.
D) stratosphere, magnetosphere, and troposphere.

Question 24

Which of the following is incorrect?

A) Earth represents a vast integrated system.
B) Earth represents an open system in terms of energy.
C) Earth represents a closed system in terms of matter.
D) New resources and matter are being added to Earth's systems all the time.

Question 25

Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) threshold - balance of inputs and outputs
B) steady state equilibrium - small fluctuations about an average condition
C) dynamic equilibrium - large fluctuations that changes abruptly over time
D) tipping point -same as steady state equilibrium

Question 26

If Earth warmed up, and more snow fell because of more water vapor in the atmosphere, and that snow then reduced Earth's temperature, which increased snow cover, then the initial increase in snow fall would be ________ feedback, while the continued increase in snow fall would be ________ feedback.

A) positive; positive
B) positive; negative
C) negative; positive
D) negative; negative

Question 27

What type of feedback maintains stability in a system; i.e., what type of feedback keeps a system functioning properly?

A) positive
B) negative
C) neutral

Question 28

The scientific method is described by which of the following?

A) A single, definitive method for doing science.
B) The acceptance of supernatural explanations for phenomenon until science proves otherwise.
C) The development of hypotheses for testing and prediction.
D) Irreproducible results accepted as theory.

Question 29

With respect to air, water, and material resources, which of the following is true?

A) A forest is a closed system.
B) A forest is an open system.
C) A forest is an open system in terms of air, but closed in terms of material resources.
D) A forest is an open system in terms of water, but closed in terms of energy resources.

Question 30

Which of the following is not true of scientific theories?

A) They are based on several hypotheses.
B) They are broad in scope because they unify several known facts about the world.
C) They are based on natural laws (such as those pertaining to gravity, relativity, atomic theory, etc.)
D) They are absolute truths and can never be proven wrong.

Question 31

As we burn fossil fuels and release carbon dioxide, the temperature of our planet and the oceans will increase. When the oceans warm they will release more carbon dioxide, further warming the planet and oceans. If this occurs rapidly and causes a sudden rise in temperature, a(n) ________ has been crossed and that the planet has moved into a state of ________.

A) input level; equilibrium
B) input level; disequilibrium
C) threshold; equilibrium
D) threshold; disequilibrium

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of a closed system?

A) a forest
B) a river drainage basin
C) an automobile
D) the Earth (in terms of matter)

Question 33

In terms of matter and resources, the Earth is essentially a(n) ________ system; In terms of energy, the Earth is a(n) ________ system.

A) closed; closed
B) closed; open
C) open; open
D) open; closed

Question 34

A large flood in a river may cause abrupt shifts leading to the carving of a new channel. The point at which this change occurs is a(n)

A) type of dynamic equilibrium condition.
B) type of metastable equilibrium.
C) threshold.
D) input.

Question 35

Which of the following best describes the condition of steady-state equilibrium?

A) System inputs always exactly balance outputs so the system never changes.
B) System inputs and outputs fluctuate around a stable average so the system does not move far from its average condition.
C) System inputs produce large, random fluctuations in output, forcing the system into a new state of equilibrium.
D) Systems slowly adjust to long-term changes in input and output.

Question 36

If a system responds to a change in input by moving further away from its equilibrium condition, what type of feedback has occurred?

A) positive
B) negative
C) neutral
D) Not enough information is given to indicate what type of feedback has occurred.

Question 37

The capacity to change the motion of, or to do work on, matter is the definition of

A) energy.
B) plasma.
C) thermodynamics.
D) acceleration.
E) system.

Question 38

The key idea behind the scientific method is

A) the use of intuition in testing theories.
B) an appeal to supernatural explanations when natural explanations have not yet been found for a phenomenon.
C) the testing of ideas through controlled observations and experiments.
D) unbridled speculation about the world.

Question 39

The carbon dioxide absorbed by plants is an example of an ________ to a forest and an ________ from the atmosphere.

A) input; input
B) input; output
C) output; output
D) output; input

Question 40

Systems encountered in nature at Earth's surface, such as a forest, are

A) open systems in terms of energy.
B) closed systems in terms of energy.
C) open systems in terms of matter.
D) both open systems in terms of energy and open systems in terms of matter.
E) both closed systems in terms of energy and open systems in terms of matter.

Question 41

An angular distance measured north or south of the equator from the center of Earth is termed

A) longitude.
B) latitude.
C) zenith.
D) Greenwich distance.

Question 42

A parallel of latitude

A) is used to measure distances east and west of the equator.
B) measures longitude.
C) is called a meridian.
D) is used to measure distances north or south of the equator.
E) is a line which passes through both poles.

Question 43

Which of the following is true of the biosphere?

A) Life processes generally are not shaped by the abiotic spheres.
B) Life processes generally are shaped to the abiotic spheres.
C) It is not connected to the overlapping inorganic spheres.
D) It only occurs in the hydrosphere.

Question 44

The realization that Earth was a sphere

A) did not occur in Europe until the first voyages of Columbus.
B) had to wait until the modern era (1800s).
C) was first made by Pythagoras, 580-500 B.C.
D) was made by Isaac Newton.

Question 45

As arctic temperatures rise, summer sea ice and glacial melt accelerates; lighter color surfaces are thereby replaced with darker-colored surfaces leading to more absorption and surface heating. This is an example of a(n) ________ feedback.

A) negative
B) positive
C) reverse
D) dynamic

Question 46

The oblateness of Earth occurs at the

A) poles.
B) equator.
C) subtropics.
D) prime meridian.

Question 47

Which of the following statements about Earth is correct?

A) It is elongated.
B) Earth is the second largest planet in the solar system.
C) The equatorial diameter is 42 km (26 mi.) greater than the polar diameter.
D) Earth is perfectly spherical.

Question 48

The science that specifically attempts to determine Earth's shape and size by surveys and mathematical means is called

A) geography.
B) geology.
C) cartography.
D) astronomy.
E) geodesy.

Question 49

An angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian from the center of Earth is termed

A) longitude.
B) latitude.
C) zenith.
D) Greenwich distance.

Question 50

Which of the following is true of the biosphere?

A) It is never referred to as the ecosphere.
B) It exists on other planets in the solar system.
C) It is not connected to the overlapping inorganic spheres.
D) It extends from the floor of the oceans to 8 km (5 mi.) into the atmosphere.

Question 51

A degree of longitude at the equator is roughly________ in length. A degree of longitude at the poles is ________ in length

A) 111 km; 111 km
B) 0 km; 111 km
C) 111 km; 0 km
D) 0 km; 56 km
E) 56 km; 0 km

Question 52

Who made a significant, early contribution to cartography by adding a grid and orienting the map with north at the top? He also divided the circumference of Earth into 360°, with each degree comprising 60 minutes, and each minute comprising 60 seconds.

A) Pythagoras-in the sixth century B.C.
B) Sir Isaac Newton-in the seventeenth century A.D.
C) Magellan-in the sixteenth century A.D.
D) Ptolemy-in the second century A.D.

Question 53

If increased levels of carbon dioxide lead to further increases in temperature by promoting the release of even more carbon dioxide from the oceans, this means a ________ feedback has occurred and that the planet is ________.

A) positive; in equilibrium
B) positive; out of equilibrium
C) negative; in equilibrium
D) negative; out of equilibrium

Question 54

Which of the following is easily determined using the position of the Sun or stars?

A) longitude
B) latitude
C) altitude
D) mean sea level

Question 55

Living systems are considered

A) biotic.
B) inorganic.
C) part of the lithosphere.
D) abiotic.

Question 56

The diameter of Earth is largest when measured around the

A) poles.
B) equator.
C) subtropics.
D) prime meridian.

Question 57

Predator/prey relationships are an example of

A) positive feedback, because more predation leads to higher prey populations as they increase reproduction to insure survival.
B) positive feedback, as more prey discourages further predation allowing prey populations to flourish.
C) negative feedback, because prey populations tend to achieve a balance with the number of predators.
D) negative feedback, because more wolves equal fewer elk and people tend to like elks more than wolves.

Question 58

Around the Grand Canyon the predators of deer were largely exterminated by people. The deer population grew rapidly as a result of the lack of predators until the deer exhausted their food supply. This led to a massive die-off (known as a population crash) and hundreds of deer died of starvation. The point at which the food supply no longer supported the large deer population can best be considered a

A) model.
B) metastable equilibrium condition.
C) threshold.
D) dynamic equilibrium condition.

Question 59

Which of the following statements regarding the development of models by scientists is not true?

A) Adjusting the variables in a model simulates different conditions and allows predictions of possible system operations.
B) A model is a simplication designed to help us understand complex processes.
C) Most scientists believe that any system can eventually be modeled with 100 percent accuracy. Thus, models can be perfect representations of reality.
D) A model is only as good as the assumptions and accuracy of information upon which it is based.

Question 60

Isaac Newton reasoned that Earth was not perfectly spherical because of

A) centrifugal force created by Earth's more rapid rotation at the equator.
B) centrifugal force created by Earth's more rapid rotation at the poles.
C) gravitational force created by Earth's more rapid rotation at the equator.
D) gravitational force created by Earth's more rapid rotation at the poles.

Question 61

If you began a trip at 60° west, 20° north and traveled 120° farther west and 50° south, your new position would be

A) the International Dateline at 70° north latitude.
B) the International Dateline at 30° south latitude.
C) the Greenwich meridian at 70° north latitude.
D) the Greenwich meridian at 30° south latitude.
E) 30° north, 120° west.

Question 62

The meridian opposite of Earth's prime meridian (0° longitude) is called

A) secondary meridian.
B) the anti-meridian.
C) the equator.
D) the International Date Line.

Question 63

Longitude is conveniently determined at sea using

A) a clock without a pendulum (i.e. a marine chronometer).
B) noon Sun angles.
C) magnetic compasses.
D) sextants.

Question 64

Which of the following is not true of meridians?

A) They cross parallels at right angles.
B) They are lines that run in an east-west direction.
C) All meridians are the same length.
D) They are used to measure east-west angular distances.

Question 65

Which of the following is true of the length (as measured in kilometers) of a degree of latitude?

A) It is mostly constant at all latitudes.
B) It is longer near the equator than near the poles.
C) It is shorter near the equator than near the poles.
D) It is shorter near the prime meridian than near the international dateline.

Question 66

The letters A.M. stand for

A) after midnight.
B) after morning.
C) ante majolica.
D) ante meridiem.
E) after meridian.

Question 67

A line connecting all points along the same longitudinal angle is called a

A) meridian.
B) parallel.
C) prime latitudinal angle.
D) great circle.

Question 68

Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is

A) the same as Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).
B) established 24 standard meridians around the globe at equal intervals from the prime meridian.
C) replaced Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and became the legal reference for official time in all countries.
D) two-hours ahead of Zulu time, indicating the single moment when all locations on the planet are on the same calendar day.

Question 69

The difference in Sun time between two places located 30° in longitude apart from one another is

A) 30 seconds.
B) 30 minutes.
C) one hour.
D) two hours.
E) three hours.

Question 70

Longitude is

A) an angular distance measured north or south of the equator.
B) an angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian.
C) the basis for establishing parallels.
D) determined by Sun altitude above the horizon.

Question 71

If you were standing at 60° north latitude you would be within which latitudinal geographic zone?

A) subantarctic
B) midlatitude
C) antarctic
D) subarctic
E) subtropical

Question 72

If City A is located 35° west of City B, the time at City A is ________ that at City B.

A) earlier than
B) later than
C) the same as
D) earlier during daylights saving only than

Question 73

Which of the following is true of the prime meridian?

A) It is used to determine latitude using lines that run east and west.
B) It was first used in the 1500s at the time of initial circumnavigation voyages.
C) It was not established until 1884 and is centered on an observatory near London.
D) It is that place on Earth where the days officially change.

Question 74

If you were standing at 20° north latitude you would be within which latitudinal geographic zone?

A) tropical
B) midlatitude
C) equatorial
D) subarctic
E) subtropical

Question 75

If a clock on a ship indicates that it is 2:00 P.M. in its home port, while another clock on the ship indicates that it is 12:00 noon at the ship's present location, what is the difference in longitude between the ship's position and its home port?

A) The ship is 2° east of its home port.
B) The ship is 2° west of its home port.
C) The ship is 30° east of its home port.
D) The ship is 30° west of its home port.
E) The ship is 45° west of its home port.

Question 76

The letters P.M. stand for

A) prior majolica.
B) previous morning.
C) post meridiem.
D) possible meridian.

Question 77

Latitude is

A) the angular distance measured north or south of the equator.
B) the angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian.
C) the basis for establishing meridians.
D) portrayed on a globe as lines that cross the equator at right angles.

Question 78

Which of the following is true regarding the 0° prime meridian?

A) There was no way of determining this meridian at sea until as late as AD 1760.
B) The prime meridian passes through Paris, France.
C) International agreement regarding the location of the prime meridian was not resolved until the 1980s when a treaty was completed.
D) The key to measuring angular distances east and west of the prime meridian was the development of accurate compasses.

Question 79

How far north you live from the equator is measured as your ________, whereas an imaginary line marking all those places at that same distance north of the equator is called a ________.

A) longitude; meridian
B) meridian; longitude
C) latitude; parallel
D) parallel; latitude
E) location; place

Question 80

The basis for defining the length of a day is the fact that

A) Earth rotates east to west.
B) Earth moves through 365.25 days a year in its orbit about the Sun.
C) Earth rotates on its axis in 24 hours; i.e., it rotates 15° of longitude per hour.
D) Earth does not rotate; rather, it revolves.