Deck 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization

Question 1

Plasma cells

A)secrete antibodies.
B)function in allergic reactions.
C)directly destroy target cells.
D)suppress immune reactions.
E)activate B cells and other T cells.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Class II MHC genes code for

A)certain secreted complement components.
B)self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.
C)all HLA antigens.
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Lymphocytes:

A)possess MHC antigens for recognizing self.
B)have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens.
C)gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self.
D)develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A)It determines the antibody's distribution in the body.
B)It forms the antigen binding sites.
C)It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.
D)It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement.
E)It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.

Question 5

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed

A)antigenic determinant.
B)hapten.
C)antigen binding site.
D)variable region.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

A)are the result of genetic expression.
B)function in recognition of self molecules.
C)receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
D)aid in cellular development.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Question 7

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?

A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response

Question 8

Antigen presenting cells

A)include dendritic cells.
B)include macrophages.
C)engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic.
D)hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 9

Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except

A)foreign to the immune system.
B)molecular complexity.
C)large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000.
D)large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
E)cells or large, complex molecules.

Question 10

Superantigens are

A)body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B)cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C)bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D)those that evoke allergic reactions.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 11

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

A)antibodies.
B)sensitized T cells.
C)activated macrophages.
D)plasma cells.
E)Bursa cells.

Question 12

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

A)variable region.
B)joining region.
C)constant region.
D)light region.
E)hinge region.

Question 13

Class I MHC genes code for

A)certain secreted complement components.
B)markers that display unique characteristics of self.
C)all HLA antigens.
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Question 14

The bone marrow is where

A)immune responses to antigen occur.
B)blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
C)antigen is filtered from the blood.
D)antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
E)T lymphocytes complete maturation.

Question 15

Helper T cells

A)secrete antibodies.
B)function in allergic reactions.
C)directly destroy target cells.
D)suppress immune reactions.
E)activate B cells and other T cells.

Question 16

T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires

A)typically a protein antigen.
B)binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell.
C)binding of T cell to a site on the antigen.
D)interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 17

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except

A)two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B)two identical light polypeptide chains.
C)disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D)four antigen binding sites.
E)a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

Question 18

The major histocompatability complex is

A)a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
C)also known as the complement system.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Question 19

Lymphocyte maturation involves

A)hormonal signals that initiate development.
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C)T cells maturing in the thymus.
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E)all of the choices are correct.

Question 20

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an

A)epitope.
B)hapten.
C)antigen binding site.
D)variable region.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 21

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 22

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are

A)IgM only.
B)IgG only.
C)IgD only.
D)IgM and IgG.
E)IgE and IgA.

Question 23

An example of artificial active immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 24

When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly

A)IgM.
B)IgA.
C)IgD.
D)IgE.
E)IgG.

Question 25

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response

Question 26

An example of natural passive immunity would be

A)chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 27

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG
E)IgM.

Question 28

Monoclonal antibodies

A)originate from a single B cell clone.
B)have a single specificity for antigen.
C)are secreted by hybridomas.
D)are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 29

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

A)it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B)it contains a central J chain.
C)it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D)it can fix complement.
E)it is a dimer.

Question 30

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

A)IgD.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
E)IgA.

Question 31

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

A)helper T cells
B)suppressor T cells
C)cytotoxic T cells
D)delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E)natural killer (NK) cells

Question 32

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

A)IgM only
B)IgG only
C)IgD only
D)IgM and IgG
E)IgE and IgA

Question 33

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.

Question 34

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

A)IgD.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
E)IgA.

Question 35

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.

Question 36

Cytotoxic T cells

A)stimulate B cell proliferation.
B)lack specificity for a target cell.
C)secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D)secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 37

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?

A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response

Question 38

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

A)Cytotoxic T cells
B)Helper T cells
C)B cells
D)Plasma cells
E)Suppressor T cells

Question 39

The most significant cells in graft rejection are

A)helper T cells.
B)suppressor T cells.
C)cytotoxic T cells.
D)B cells.
E)natural killer (NK) cells.

Question 40

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?

A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response

Question 41

Antitoxins

A)contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B)use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C)contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D)include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.
E)contain attenuated organisms.

Question 42

High titers of specific antibodies are components of

A)specific immune globulin (SIG).
B)gamma globulin.
C)immune serum globulin (ISG).
D)attenuated vaccines.
E)toxoids.

Question 43

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines

A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 44

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A)Adjuvant
B)Booster
C)Antibodies to toxin
D)Gamma globulin
E)"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine

Question 45

Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except

A)diphtheria.
B)botulism.
C)snake bites.
D)chickenpox.
E)spider bites.

Question 46

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except

A)a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B)a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C)a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D)it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E)it is also known as the anamnestic response.

Question 47

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by

A)removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B)treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
C)passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D)long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 48

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens?

A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
E)IgA

Question 49

Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients?

A)Killed, inactivated vaccines
B)Attenuated vaccines
C)Toxoids
D)Immune serums
E)Subunit vaccines

Question 50

Edward Jenner's work involved

A)inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B)development of passive immunotherapy.
C)development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D)immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 51

Immunotherapy is the

A)use of antitoxins.
B)use of immune serum globulin.
C)conferring of passive immunity.
D)administering of preformed antibodies.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 52

Toxoids

A)contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B)are always genetically engineered.
C)contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D)confer passive immunity.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 53

The process of clonal deletion is designed to

A)destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B)slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C)slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D)limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient.
E)slow down the immune system in the elderly.

Question 54

Variolation involved using

A)dried, ground smallpox scabs.
B)a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.
C)preparations of human cowpox lesions.
D)antibodies to the smallpox virus.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 55

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make

A)Adjuvant.
B)Booster.
C)Antibodies to toxin.
D)Gamma globulin.
E)"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.

Question 56

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail.He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot.What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

A)Natural active immunity
B)Artificial passive immunity
C)Natural passive immunity
D)Artificial active immunity
E)None of the choices will help him.

Question 57

The DTaP immunization

A)contains diphtheria toxoid.
B)is administered in childhood.
C)contains tetanus toxoid.
D)contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 58

Live, attenuated vaccines

A)include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B)include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 59

Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for

A)asthma.
B)Chron's disease.
C)breast cancer.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 60

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule.What type of immunity will develop as a result of this?

A)Natural active immunity
B)Artificial passive immunity
C)Natural passive immunity
D)Artificial active immunity
E)None of the choices will protect him.

Question 61

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.

Question 62

A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.

Question 63

The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.

Question 64

Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.

Question 65

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except

A)Malaria.
B)Botulism.
C)Cholera.
D)Yellow fever.
E)Rabies.

Question 66

Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations?

A)Autism
B)Diabetes
C)Asthma
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Question 67

Which cells' direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity?

A)T-cells
B)B-cells
C)Bacterial cells
D)Viral components
E)Neutrophils

Question 68

Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.

Question 69

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

A)they confer longer lasting protection.
B)they produce infection but not disease.
C)they can mutate back to a virulent strain.
D)they require fewer boosters.
E)they require smaller doses.

Question 70

Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen.

Question 71

Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.

Question 72

Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to host tissue.

Question 73

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

A)it should have a relatively long shelf life.
B)it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
C)it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.
D)it should not require numerous boosters.
E)it should be easy to administer.

Question 74

Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and cancer cells?

A)T_C
B)T_H
C)CD4
D)MHC

Question 75

The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.

Question 76

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

A)they require smaller doses.
B)they require fewer boosters.
C)they confer longer lasting protection.
D)they can be transmitted to other people.
E)they produce infection but not disease.

Question 77

After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.

Question 78

Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile.

Question 79

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?

A)Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells.
B)Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens.
C)Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
D)Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.
E)Presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production, lymphocyte development.

Question 80

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.