Deck 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation

Question 1

A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result?

A) Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
B) Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
C) Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
D) Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

Answer 1

Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets

Question 2

In a type III hypersensitivity reaction,the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of:

A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Natural killer cells
C) Complement activation
D) Degranulation of mast cells

Answer 2

Complement activation

Question 3

How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
D) Natural killer cells

Answer 3

Natural killer cells

Question 4

Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

A) Iron
B) Zinc
C) Iodine
D) Magnesium

Question 5

Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:

A) Autoimmunity
B) Alloimmunity
C) Homoimmunity
D) Hypersensitivity

Question 6

When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility,the erythrocytes are destroyed by:

A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Phagocytosis in the spleen
D) Natural killer cells

Question 7

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction,which leukocyte is activated?

A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) T lymphocytes

Question 8

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation,tissue damage is a result of:

A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Phagocytosis in the spleen
D) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 9

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction,what causes bronchospasm?

A) Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
B) Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody
C) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors
D) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors

Question 10

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?

A) Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
B) Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
C) Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
D) Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface

Question 11

Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to:

A) Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
B) Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation
C) Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues
D) Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species

Question 12

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction,the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?

A) Histamine bound to H2
B) Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
C) Epinephrine bound to mast cells
D) Acetylcholine bound to mast cells

Question 13

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) T cells

Question 14

A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:

A) Hemolytic shock
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Necrotizing vasculitis
D) Systemic erythematosus

Question 15

What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?

A) Greater quantities of histamine
B) More histamine receptors
C) Greater quantities of IgE
D) A deficiency in epinephrine

Question 16

Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Modulation
B) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
C) Neutrophil-mediated damage
D) Complement-mediated lysis

Question 17

Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):

A) Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
B) Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
C) Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
D) Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens

Question 18

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
B) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
D) Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 19

When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system,the blood cells are destroyed by:

A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
C) Phagocytosis in the spleen
D) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 20

Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 21

When a tuberculin skin test is positive,the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Histamine
B) T lymphocytes
C) Immune complexes
D) Products of complement
E) Macrophages

Question 22

Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses,fungi,or yeast?

A) Natural killer cells
B) Macrophages
C) B cells
D) T cells

Question 23

Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?

A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM

Question 24

Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A) IV
B) III
C) II
D) I

Question 25

Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?

A) They tend to produce less IgE.
B) They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
C) They tend to attract very few mast cells.
D) They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.

Question 26

Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?

A) Platelets
B) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes

Question 27

Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system,severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells?

A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Natural killer cells
D) Neutrophils

Question 28

Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?

A) Hemolytic anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Myasthenia gravis

Question 29

In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?

A) Bruton disease
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) Reticular dysgenesis
D) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Question 30

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV

Question 31

Graves disease is a result of:

A) Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins
B) The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes
C) Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites
D) Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber

Question 32

A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?

A) No antigens
B) No antibodies
C) Both A and B antigens
D) Both A and B antibodies

Question 33

Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation?

A) Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
B) Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
C) Receptors on natural killer cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
D) Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.

Question 34

Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody?

A) Binding with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells, causing neonatal muscular weakness
B) Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism
C) Inducing anomalies in the fetus or causing pregnancy loss
D) Destroying platelets in the fetus and neonate

Question 35

How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells?

A) 1 to 2
B) 4 to 5
C) 6 to 8
D) 10 to 12

Question 36

Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A) IV
B) III
C) II
D) I

Question 37

Which statement is true regarding immunodeficiency?

A) Immunodeficiency is generally not present in other family members.
B) Immunodeficiency is never acquired; rather, it is congenital.
C) Immunodeficiency is almost immediately symptomatic.
D) Immunodeficiency is a result of a postnatal mutation.

Question 38

Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)

A) Poison ivy
B) Neomycin
C) Dairy products
D) Nickel
E) Detergents

Question 39

When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus,what reaction occurs?

A) T-cell immunity
B) Alloimmunity
C) Fetal immunity
D) Autoimmunity

Question 40

A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies?

A) A
B) B
C) A and B
D) O

Question 41

Which statements best define acute rejection? (Select all that apply.)

A) Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response.
B) Acute rejection is usually a type III rejection.
C) Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection.
D) Acute rejection is associated with the body's response to an organ transplant.
E) Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLAs).

Question 42

Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.)

A) Crohn disease
B) Addison disease
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Noninsulin-dependent diabetes