Deck 31: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology

Question 1

OCPs can be used to treat which of the following conditions?

A) Anovulation
B) Prevention of ovarian cysts
C) Polycystic ovaries
D) All of the above

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

Which patients should be screened for gestational diabetes mellitus?

A) All women planning to become pregnant
B) Any woman suspected of having been exposed to HIV
C) Pregnant women approximately 1 month before the due date
D) BMI before pregnancy of 30 or higher

Answer 2

BMI before pregnancy of 30 or higher

Question 3

Which of the following procedures can be used as a diagnostic tool to collect biopsy samples and as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue?

A) LEEP
B) Conization
C) Colposcopy
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above

Answer 3

Both A and B

Question 4

You are responsible for gathering a detailed gynecologic history on all female patients. Which of the following included in that history?

A) Date of last pap test
B) Past surgeries
C) Family history
D) All of the above

Question 5

Methods to help with the symptoms of perimenopause include which of the following?

A) Avoid caffeine and spicy foods to reduce hot flashes.
B) Use relaxation techniques to aid with sleep disorders.
C) Consume a low-fat diet high in calcium and vitamin D.
D) All of the above

Question 6

As legal protection for the provider, during which part of the examination should the medical assistant remain in the examination room?

A) Breast examination
B) Abdominal examination
C) Pelvic examination
D) All of the above

Question 7

The primary reason for HIV screening of all pregnant women is

A) treatment prevents the development of AIDS.
B) properly treating the pregnant woman helps protect the fetus from HIV.
C) treating the pregnant woman extends her life.
D) the law requires that all pregnant women be screened for HIV.

Question 8

Patient education on the use of a diaphragm should include which of the following?

A) Use spermicidal products if you want extra protection.
B) Be refitted if you gain more than 15 pounds.
C) Before repeating intercourse, remove the diaphragm, and add spermicide.
D) If the diaphragm has a small hole, add more spermicide for protection.

Question 9

ACHES is a mnemonic to help patient remember problems that could be serious side effect from oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). What does the A in this mnemonic stand for?

A) Amenorrhea
B) Angina
C) Abdominal pain
D) All of the above

Question 10

Failure to have a menstrual period is called

A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.

Question 11

One of the possible side effects of using the cervical cap for birth control is

A) increased risk of abnormal pap test.
B) increased risk of PID.
C) breast tenderness.
D) breakthrough bleeding.

Question 12

New patient is in for her first prenatal visit. She tells you that she has been pregnant 3 times previously. She is 10 weeks pregnant at this time. She has had a miscarriage in the past and has two living children. What is her gravida number?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 13

Which method of birth control has the highest failure rate?

A) Condom
B) Diaphragm
C) IUD
D) Birth control pills

Question 14

New patient is in for her first prenatal visit. She tells you that she has been pregnant 3 times previously. She is 10 weeks pregnant at this time. She has had a miscarriage in the past and has two living children. What is her para number?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 15

Depo-Provera is a good contraceptive choice for which of the following?

A) Patients at risk of developing osteoporosis
B) Patients who prefer not to be seen at the physician's office for at least 6 months
C) Patients who want to delay pregnancy for at least 18 months
D) Patients who are compliant with OCP therapy

Question 16

The medical term for the act or process of giving birth is

A) -amnios.
B) -partum.
C) -rrhea.
D) -gravida.

Question 17

Which of the following prenatal blood or laboratory tests helps determine immunity to German measles?

A) Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
B) Blood type and Rh
C) Rubella titer
D) Syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV screening
E) Pap test

Question 18

Hormonal contraceptives include the following:

A) Vaginal rings
B) Depo-Provera injections
C) Birth control pill or patch
D) All of the above

Question 19

A neural tube defect is a congenital defect in the brain or spinal column that occurs during embryonic development. Which of the following is a neural tube defect?

A) Spina bifida
B) Meningocele
C) Anencephaly
D) All of the above

Question 20

Which type of examination usually involves taking pelvic measurements?

A) New patient visit
B) Diagnosis of PID
C) Initial prenatal visit
D) Consultation regarding contraception

Question 21

When a provider is diagnosing a vaginal infection and suspects a yeast infection, what solution will be added to the slide for the microscopic examination?

A) Saline
B) Potassium hydroxide
C) Formalin
D) Preservative

Question 22

Barrier methods of contraception include which of the following?

A) Diaphragm
B) Vaginal ring
C) Hormonal implants
D) Birth control patch

Question 23

New patient is in for her first prenatal visit. She tells you that she has been pregnant 3 times previously. She is 10 weeks pregnant at this time. She has had a miscarriage in the past and has two living children. What is her abortion number?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 24

An abnormally small head associated with incomplete brain development is

A) cystic fibrosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) Down syndrome.
D) microcephaly.

Question 25

The group of inherited blood disorders characterized by a deficiency of one of the factors necessary for the coagulation of blood is

A) cystic fibrosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) Down syndrome.
D) microcephaly.

Question 26

An inherited condition of crescent shaped RBCs that block capillaries and decreasing the oxygen supply to the cells is

A) spina bifida.
B) meningiocele.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) pre-eclampsia.

Question 27

An abnormal condition of pregnancy that involves hypertension, edema, and proteinuria is

A) spina bifida.
B) meningiocele.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) pre-eclampsia.

Question 28

A condition that affects all the exocrine cells, but affects the respiratory system the most. It causes abnormally thick mucus that blocks the alveoli.

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Hemophilia
C) Down syndrome
D) Microcephaly

Question 29

When a provider is diagnosing a vaginal infection and suspects trichomoniasis, what solution will be added to the slide for the microscopic examination?

A) Saline
B) Potassium hydroxide
C) Formalin
D) Preservative

Question 30

The genetic disorder where abnormal cell division results in an extra chromosome 21 is

A) cystic fibrosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) Down syndrome.
D) microcephaly.

Question 31

Ovarian cancer can be diagnosed with a pap test.

Question 32

When using the liquid-based method for the collection of a specimen for a pap test, which of the following is used?

A) Cervical spatula
B) Cotton tipped applicator
C) Plastic-fronded broom
D) None of the above

Question 33

A condition where there is an abnormal opening in the spinal column that allows the meninges to protrude is

A) spina bifida.
B) meningiocele.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) pre-eclampsia.

Question 34

Which contraceptive method may be prescribed for women with PMDD?

A) Birth control pills
B) Vaginal ring
C) Hormonal implants
D) Birth control patch

Question 35

Birth control implants are designed to prevent pregnancy for up to 3 years after insertion.

Question 36

The protrusion of the meninges through an opening in the spinal column or skull is

A) spina bifida.
B) meningiocele.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) pre-eclampsia.

Question 37

A deficiency in the enzyme responsible for converting phenylalanine into tyrosine is

A) PMS.
B) PKU.
C) PMDD.
D) None of the above

Question 38

Which of the following procedures is used to treat chronic cervicitis?

A) Cryotherapy
B) Colposcopy
C) LEEP
D) All of the above

Question 39

The congenital absence of the all or part of the brain is

A) anencephaly.
B) amenorrhea.
C) anovulation.
D) None of the above

Question 40

Cells for a maturation index are collected from

A) cervix.
B) endocervix.
C) vaginal wall.
D) rectum.

Question 41

A diaphragm should be left in place at least 3 hours after sexual intercourse.

Question 42

Women using Depo-Provera injections for contraception are not at risk for blood clots and cardiovascular disease.

Question 43

Determination of the EDD typically is done through an ultrasound.

Question 44

A LEEP procedure is the least invasive method for collecting a cervical biopsy.

Question 45

During menopause women still ovulate.

Question 46

Recent research indicates that HRT protects postmenopausal women from heart disease.

Question 47

In the liquid-based method of specimen collection for a Pap test cells are placed directly on a microscope slide.

Question 48

The height of the fundus helps measure the progress of fetal growth and provides information about the estimated gestational age of the fetus.

Question 49

Perimenopause may last as long as 10 years.

Question 50

A major advantage of using a colposcopy to collect a cervical biopsy is that the suspected area can be visualized during the procedure, and the tissue is gathered from the most atypical area.