Deck 25: Procedural Coding Basics
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Deck 25: Procedural Coding Basics
1
Breast reduction
A) 19316
B) 19318
C) 19328
D) 19330
A) 19316
B) 19318
C) 19328
D) 19330
19318
2
Serum folic acid
A) 82735
B) 82760
C) 82746
D) 82803
A) 82735
B) 82760
C) 82746
D) 82803
82746
3
Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes
A) 99238
B) 99239
C) 99234
D) 99235
A) 99238
B) 99239
C) 99234
D) 99235
99239
4
Urinalysis
A) 81000
B) 81005
C) 82000
D) 81001
A) 81000
B) 81005
C) 82000
D) 81001
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5
Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99211
B) 99212
C) 99213
D) 99214
A) 99211
B) 99212
C) 99213
D) 99214
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6
New patient office visit, comprehensive history, examination, and moderate-complexity decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
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7
Initial hospital observation care, new patient
A) 99217
B) 99218
C) 99219
D) 99220
A) 99217
B) 99218
C) 99219
D) 99220
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8
Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A) 86000
B) 86001
C) 86010
D) 86011
A) 86000
B) 86001
C) 86010
D) 86011
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9
New patient, initial inpatient consultation
A) 99251
B) 99252
C) 99253
D) 99254
A) 99251
B) 99252
C) 99253
D) 99254
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10
Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization
A) 69399
B) 69401
C) 69400
D) 69405
A) 69399
B) 69401
C) 69400
D) 69405
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11
Biopsy of external ear
A) 69090
B) 69100
C) 69140
D) 69150
A) 69090
B) 69100
C) 69140
D) 69150
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12
Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011
A) 71000
B) 71100
C) 71010
D) 71011
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13
Suture of a recent wound on the eyelid
A) 67938
B) 67930
C) 67950
D) 67961
A) 67938
B) 67930
C) 67950
D) 67961
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14
Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization
A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775
A) 74710
B) 74740
C) 74742
D) 74775
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15
New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making
A) 99202
B) 99203
C) 99204
D) 99205
A) 99202
B) 99203
C) 99204
D) 99205
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16
Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images
A) 78201
B) 78205
C) 78220
D) 78223
A) 78201
B) 78205
C) 78220
D) 78223
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17
Triglycerides
A) 84476
B) 84477
C) 84478
D) 84479
A) 84476
B) 84477
C) 84478
D) 84479
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18
New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
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19
Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent
A) 32003
B) 32002
C) 32001
D) 32000
A) 32003
B) 32002
C) 32001
D) 32000
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20
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
A) 93000
B) 93015
C) 92960
D) 92950
A) 93000
B) 93015
C) 92960
D) 92950
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21
Cyanide
A) 82595
B) 82600
C) 82615
D) 82530
A) 82595
B) 82600
C) 82615
D) 82530
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22
Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making
A) 99304
B) 99305
C) 99306
D) 99307
A) 99304
B) 99305
C) 99306
D) 99307
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23
Psychoanalysis
A) 90845
B) 90846
C) 90847
D) 90849
A) 90845
B) 90846
C) 90847
D) 90849
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24
Initial pediatric inpatient critical care
A) 99296
B) 99295
C) 99294
D) 99293
A) 99296
B) 99295
C) 99294
D) 99293
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25
Which of the following is a method of closed treatment of fractures?
A) Without manipulation and/or traction
B) With manipulation and/or traction
C) Fixation device placed across fracture site
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
A) Without manipulation and/or traction
B) With manipulation and/or traction
C) Fixation device placed across fracture site
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
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26
Basic metabolic panel
A) 80048
B) 80050
C) 80051
D) 80053
A) 80048
B) 80050
C) 80051
D) 80053
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27
Which of the following sections uses the code range between 70000 and 79999?
A) Anesthesia section
B) Surgery section
C) Radiology section
D) Pathology section
E) Medicine section
A) Anesthesia section
B) Surgery section
C) Radiology section
D) Pathology section
E) Medicine section
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28
Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?
A) Pathology
B) Surgical
C) Anesthesia
D) Medicine
A) Pathology
B) Surgical
C) Anesthesia
D) Medicine
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29
Acne surgery, removal of multiple milia, comedones, cysts, pustules
A) 10080
B) 10061
C) 10040
D) 11001
A) 10080
B) 10061
C) 10040
D) 11001
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30
Subsequent nursing facility care, comprehensive interval history and examination, high-complexity medical decisions
A) 99310
B) 99309
C) 99308
D) 99307
A) 99310
B) 99309
C) 99308
D) 99307
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31
Which of the following levels of history includes a review of the systems that relate to the chief complaint?
A) Problem-focused history
B) Expanded problem-focused history
C) Detailed history
D) Comprehensive history
A) Problem-focused history
B) Expanded problem-focused history
C) Detailed history
D) Comprehensive history
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32
Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following?
A) Encounter form
B) Progress notes
C) Pathology report
D) Radiology report
E) All of the above
A) Encounter form
B) Progress notes
C) Pathology report
D) Radiology report
E) All of the above
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33
New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
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34
Total splenectomy
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
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35
Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making
A) 99347
B) 99348
C) 99349
D) 99350
A) 99347
B) 99348
C) 99349
D) 99350
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36
Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
A) Category I codes
B) Category II codes
C) Category III codes
D) Both A and B
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37
When searching the Alphabetic Index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following?
A) Procedure or service
B) Organ or anatomical site
C) Condition, illness, or injury
D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym
A) Procedure or service
B) Organ or anatomical site
C) Condition, illness, or injury
D) Eponym, synonym, abbreviation, or acronym
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38
An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
A) Alphabetic Index
B) Tabular List
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
A) Alphabetic Index
B) Tabular List
C) Category subsection
D) Both A and B
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39
When wounds of more than one classification are repaired, list the less complicated repair as the primary procedure and the more complicated repair as the secondary procedure. When multiple wounds are repaired, add together the lengths of those in the same classification.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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40
Which of the following HCPCS codes range from A4000 to A8999?
A) Ambulance transport
B) Medical supplies
C) Surgical supplies
D) Durable medical equipment
E) Both B and C
A) Ambulance transport
B) Medical supplies
C) Surgical supplies
D) Durable medical equipment
E) Both B and C
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41
Revised codes are not highlighted in the CPT manual.
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42
Which of the following modifiers indicates a professional component and is used when a separate technician performs the service but the provider reviews the report and makes an accurate diagnosis?
A) -50
B) -62
C) -26
D) -RT, -LT
A) -50
B) -62
C) -26
D) -RT, -LT
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43
Which of the following codes is assigned to an urgent care facility as the place of service?
A) 01
B) 13
C) 20
D) 23
A) 01
B) 13
C) 20
D) 23
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44
Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
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45
A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.
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46
The CPT is divided into eight sections.
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47
The place of service never changes for physician billing.
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48
Downcoding can increase reimbursements.
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49
It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
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50
Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.
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