Deck 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

Question 1

Which of the following statements BEST defines a chromosome?

A)a single unit of DNA instructions for making a particular protein molecule
B)the chemical genetic code that is the basis of heredity
C)a long, thread-like structure composed of twisted parallel strands of DNA and found in the cell nucleus
D)the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism

Answer 1

a long, thread-like structure composed of twisted parallel strands of DNA and found in the cell nucleus

Question 2

At the moment of conception each person begins life as a single cell, which is called a(n):

A)embryo.
B)fetus.
C)placenta.
D)zygote.

Answer 2

zygote.

Question 3

The _____ research design tracks a particular variable or group of variables in the same group of participants over time, sometimes for years.

A)correlational
B)cross-sectional
C)experimental
D)longitudinal

Answer 3

longitudinal

Question 4

Professor Gibson is interested in studying age-related changes in adults' sex drive. She recruits three groups of participants: 25-year-olds, 45-year-olds, and 65-year-olds. Which research design is best suited for this type of study?

A)correlational
B)cross-sectional
C)experimental
D)longitudinal

Question 5

Which of the following statements BEST describes deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

A)a harmful chemical preservative that is a known teratogen
B)a specific gene that is known to be associated with several serious birth defects
C)a double-stranded molecule that encodes genetic instructions
D)the chemical "trigger" that activates cell division in the developing embryo

Question 6

According to the major stages of the lifespan the early childhood stage includes children who are between _____ and _____ years of age.

A)1; 4
B)2; 6
C)3; 8
D)4; 7

Question 7

Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into:

A)four distinct psychosocial stages of development and six physical stages of development.
B)genetic and environmental phases of development.
C)continuous and abrupt aspects of development.
D)nine age-related stages of development.

Question 8

This drawing depicts some of the key structures involved in the biological basis of heredity. After studying the image, identify the letter that labels deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D

Question 9

Kyle is studying how language abilities change throughout childhood, and Kelly is studying cognitive changes in late adulthood. Both Kyle and Kelly are conducting studies in which area of psychology?

A)clinical psychology
B)humanistic psychology
C)epigenetics
D)developmental psychology

Question 10

At conception, each biological parent contributes:

A)23 chromosomes.
B)23 pairs of chromosomes.
C)23 genes.
D)23 pairs of genes.

Question 11

Which of the following statements BEST characterizes the typical course of human development?

A)Development occurs in distinct stages that are characterized by abrupt changes in physical, mental, and social growth.
B)Gradually unfolding changes throughout the ages and stages of life characterize human development.
C)Development is viewed as occurring in four distinct stages: infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
D)Biological factors cause environmental factors to shape the course of development.

Question 12

A gene encodes the instructions for:

A)a specific combination of amino acids that form a particular protein molecule.
B)a particular physical or psychological characteristic that you will display.
C)a particular combination of chromosomes.
D)one of 46 specific combinations of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Question 13

This drawing depicts some of the key structures involved in the biological basis of heredity. After studying the image, identify the letter that labels a chromosome.

A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D

Question 14

Which of the following BEST defines a gene?

A)the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism
B)a unit of DNA on a chromosome that encodes instructions for making a particular protein
C)a type of highly specialized cell that directs the development of other cells
D)one of several thousand different protein molecules

Question 15

Some aspects of development, such as prenatal development and language development, are closely tied to _____ periods, which are periods during which a child is maximally sensitive to environmental influences.

A)germinal
B)critical
C)embryonic
D)fetal

Question 16

Genes make up _____ percent of human DNA.

A)99.9
B)about 20 to 25
C)less than 2
D)about 60

Question 17

This drawing depicts some of the key structures involved in the biological basis of heredity. After studying the image, identify the letter that labels a gene.

A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D

Question 18

Perez's research examines cognitive changes that occur as people progress from young adulthood to late adulthood. Dr. Perez is a(n) _____ psychologist.

A)biological
B)industrial/organizational
C)quantitative
D)developmental

Question 19

Which of the following statements BEST represents contemporary thinking on the nature/nurture issue?

A)Environmental factors can determine the expression of genetic potential, but only during infancy.
B)The relationship between genetics and environment is interactive; each influences the other.
C)While genetic factors determine personality, environmental factors determine intelligence and cognitive ability.
D)Genetic factors alone determine physical appearance, including height and weight, but only environmental factors influence personality characteristics.

Question 20

The study of how people change physically, mentally, and socially throughout the lifespan is called:

A)cognitive psychology.
B)humanistic psychology.
C)developmental psychology.
D)epigenetics.

Question 21

Phenotype is to genotype as:

A)inherited genes are to expressed characteristics.
B)expressed characteristics are to inherited genes.
C)recessive traits are to dominant traits.
D)dominant traits are to recessive traits.

Question 22

Because different genotypes react differently to environmental factors, psychologists and other scientists speak of the _____ to develop in a particular way.

A)genetic predisposition
B)genetic blueprint
C)environmental predisposition
D)epigenetic tendency

Question 23

The term _____ refers to the characteristics that are actually observed in an organism.

A)genotype
B)phenotype
C)allele
D)chromosome

Question 24

Dominant and recessive genes are examples of:

A)genetic predispositions.
B)mutations.
C)zygotes.
D)alleles.

Question 25

Unlike Donna, who usually gets a nice tan when exposed to sunlight, Derek has a tendency to sunburn easily. Donna and Derek obviously have different sensitivities to the same environmental factor. This example illustrates their different _____ predispositions.

A)epigenetic
B)environmental
C)karotypic
D)genetic

Question 26

Alleles are:

A)different forms of a particular gene.
B)different types of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
C)defective chromosomes that are missing a few key genes.
D)chemicals or other environmental agents that are known to cause birth defects.

Question 27

According to the latest findings the human genome consists of about _____ genes.

A)20,000 to 25,000
B)70,000 to 75,000
C)100,000 to 125,000
D)1 million

Question 28

The best known, although not the most common, pattern of allele variation is the simple:

A)karyotype variation.
B)dominant-recessive gene pair.
C)chromosomal version.
D)germinal gene pair.

Question 29

One problem with the genotype-as-blueprint analogy is that:

A)environmental factors influence the actual phenotype displayed.
B)even though genes directly control physical development and behavior the final result is never predictable.
C)the genotype does not direct and control any aspect of development as it unfolds over the lifespan.
D)environmental factors have little or no influence on the phenotype displayed.

Question 30

If Gerry's genotype contains a copy of the dominant freckles gene:

A)he will never develop freckles even with exposure to sunlight.
B)he will inevitably develop freckles regardless of environmental influences, such as exposure to sunlight.
C)he will not develop freckles unless the expression of that dominant gene is triggered by a specific environmental factor, sunlight.
D)it will also contain two inherited recessive genes that need to be activated in order for him to develop freckles.

Question 31

The term genotype refers to:

A)a recessive gene that is found only on the X chromosome.
B)the genetic makeup of an organism.
C)a computer-enhanced image of the genes found embedded in a single chromosome.
D)a category of living organisms that are genetically related.

Question 32

The human genome:

A)is the complete map of the DNA in the human organism.
B)contains 23 pairs of genes.
C)is almost identical to that of primates and contains approximately 250,000 kinds of chromosomes.
D)has been hypothesized since the early 1900s, but scientists have yet to prove that it exists.

Question 33

Humans carry all of the genes necessary to develop a tail, but we typically don't develop tails because:

A)those genes are never activated.
B)those genes can only be activated by external factors that no longer exist in our present environment.
C)we have also inherited a copy of the dominant "no tails" gene.
D)we have also inherited two recessive "no tails" genes.

Question 34

Both Bonnie and Brendan spend a lot of time in the sun. Bonnie has freckles but her brother Brendan doesn't have freckles. You can safely assume that:

A)Bonnie and Brendan have the same genotype, even though their phenotypes differ.
B)Bonnie and Brendan have inherited different alleles for the trait of freckles.
C)Bonnie and Brendan have the same phenotypes even though their genotypes differ.
D)Bonnie inherited two recessive "no freckle" alleles, and Brendan inherited one dominant allele of the freckle gene.

Question 35

The _____ pair of chromosomes, called the sex chromosomes, determines a person's biological sex.

A)22nd
B)46th
C)23rd
D)1st

Question 36

With the exception of the reproductive cells, every cell in a person's body contains:

A)a complete copy of that person's genotype.
B)only the genes that control that cell's characteristic.
C)a complete copy of that person's phenotype.
D)the developing zygote.

Question 37

A normal human genotype is made up of:

A)a set of 23 single chromosomes.
B)a set of 23 pairs of chromosomes.
C)46 pairs of genes.
D)over 1,000,000 different genes.

Question 38

A female has an _____ combination in the _____.

A)XX; 1st pair of genes
B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes
C)XY; 1st pair of chromosomes
D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes

Question 39

The diverse characteristics of different cells in the body develop because:

A)each cell type contains a distinct set of genes that is specific to that type of cell.
B)each body cell type contains a different set of chromosomes.
C)they contain a different genotype.
D)different genes are expressed or activated.

Question 40

A male has an _____ combination in the _____.

A)XX; 1st pair of genes
B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes
C)XY; 1st pair of chromosomes
D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes

Question 41

Sheena and Tina are identical twins who developed from a single zygote and share identical DNA. Nevertheless, as they develop, differences in physical and psychological characteristics become evident. These differences are due to:

A)each twin's unique genetic blueprint.
B)epigenetic changes.
C)allele variation.
D)genotypic changes.

Question 42

Some teratogens, such as cocaine, cigarette smoke, or alcohol, can damage the developing fetus:

A)only during the germinal period.
B)only during the fetal period.
C)at any stage before birth.
D)during the germinal period and the fetal period but not the embryonic period.

Question 43

During the germinal period:

A)the zygote becomes implanted on the mother's uterine wall.
B)the pregnant woman is highly susceptible to colds and infections.
C)the mother can feel the fetus moving.
D)all of the organs and the major body systems of the fetus have formed.

Question 44

The _____ delivers nourishment, oxygen, and water to the embryo and carries away carbon dioxide and other wastes.

A)placenta
B)amniotic sac
C)umbilical cord
D)zygote

Question 45

Chronic stress, feelings of depression, and anxiety during pregnancy are associated with:

A)low birth weight and premature birth.
B)Down syndrome and autism.
C)fetal teratogen syndrome.
D)ventricle malformation.

Question 46

In an experiment it was found that newborn rats who were genetically predisposed to be skittish, nervous, and high-strung would develop into calm, exploratory, and stress-resistant adult rats when raised by genetically unrelated, attentive mothers. Although the rats' DNA did not change, the chemicals that controlled their gene expression did change, a phenomenon called:

A)epigenetic change.
B)allele variation.
C)recessive gene mutation.
D)dominant gene mutation.

Question 47

Epigenetics refers to the study of:

A)the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.
B)harmful agents or substances that can cause malformation or defects in an embryo or fetus.
C)karyotypes and the contribution of chromosomes to the development of genotypes.
D)study of the complete set of DNA in the human body.

Question 48

Excessive drinking during pregnancy can cause _____ which is characterized by physical and mental problems such as abnormal facial features or learning disabilities.

A)fetal alcohol syndrome
B)teratogen immunity
C)alcohol tolerance
D)fetal teratogen syndrome

Question 49

As the neural tube expands during development it develops cavities called _____ that are found at the core of the fully developed brain and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

A)chromosomes
B)alleles
C)ventricles
D)amniotic sacs

Question 50

Which of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development?

A)embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period
B)fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period
C)germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period
D)germinal period, zygotic period, fetal period

Question 51

As a general rule, the greatest vulnerability to _____ occurs during the _____ period of prenatal development.

A)teratogens; embryonic
B)epigenesis; embryonic
C)epigenesis; germinal
D)teratogens; germinal

Question 52

A structure called the _____ eventually thickens into three bulges that will form the three main regions of the brain: the hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain.

A)ventricle
B)neural tube
C)epigenetic structure
D)amniotic sac

Question 53

In addition to interactions among genes, and between genotype and environmental influences, another crucial factor in the relationship between genotype and phenotype is:

A)the fact that gene expression is inflexible and unresponsive to internal factors.
B)that genes can mutate or spontaneously change from one generation to the next.
C)that because of the blood-brain barrier, teratogens such as exposure to radiation or chemical toxins do not affect the genotype or damage DNA.
D)the fact that the vast majority of genes in the human genome are never expressed.

Question 54

By the third week after conception a sheet of primitive neural cells forms a:

A)hollow tube called the neural tube.
B)cavity called the ventricle.
C)hollow tube called the stem cell.
D)cavity called the amniotic sac.

Question 55

Shannon is in the seventh week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Shannon's pregnancy is in the _____ period.

A)zygotic
B)embryonic
C)germinal
D)fetal

Question 56

In his research Dr. Maxwell investigates how gene activity is regulated within a cell, which signals switch genes "on" or "off," and in particular, what determines whether a given cell will become a skin cell, a nerve cell, or a heart muscle cell. His area of research is called:

A)genetic mutation research.
B)zygotic research.
C)epigenetics.
D)the human genome project.

Question 57

Cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells are called _____ cells.

A)epigenetic
B)zygotic
C)stem
D)karyotypic

Question 58

According to the text studies examining the impact of early stress on epigenetic changes in humans have shown that childhood stress or adversity:

A)does not cause epigenetic changes in humans.
B)can cause distinct epigenetic changes in brain tissue.
C)can cause epigenetic changes in accident victims but not suicide victims.
D)causes epigenetic changes but these are not observable in adulthood.

Question 59

The fetal brain is constantly changing, forming as many as 2 million synaptic connections per second. Connections that are used are strengthened, while connections that remain unused are eventually:

A)regenerated.
B)hard-wired.
C)quickened.
D)pruned.

Question 60

When does a developing organism double in weight, gaining an additional 3 to 4 pounds of body fat?

A)during the last two months of the fetal period
B)during the third and fourth months of the germinal period
C)during the first two months following conception
D)during the first two to eight weeks of prenatal development

Question 61

Heather is in her fourth month of a healthy pregnancy, and she has started to experience _____ which means that she can feel the fetus moving.

A)epigenetic movement
B)quickening
C)rooting
D)induction

Question 62

The basic sequence of motor skill development in infancy:

A)varies from one infant to another.
B)varies from one culture to another.
C)is generally the same for all infants.
D)cannot be reliably predicted.

Question 63

When you put your finger on your newborn nephew's palm, he curls his own fingers around yours, grasping your finger tightly. What behavior have you elicited from your nephew?

A)the grasping reflex
B)the rooting reflex
C)the stepping reflex
D)a newborn's inborn preference to seek human contact

Question 64

Touching a newborn's lips evokes the _____ reflex.

A)grasping
B)sucking
C)rooting
D)stepping

Question 65

Of the following senses, which is LEAST developed at birth?

A)vision
B)smell
C)touch
D)hearing

Question 66

The newborn infant:

A)is capable of a variety of voluntary behaviors, including rolling over.
B)is able to see near objects more clearly than distant objects.
C)is unable to distinguish between different voices.
D)has no sense of smell.

Question 67

The term _____ refers to the tendency of infants to develop motor control from the center of their bodies outwards.

A)proximodistal trend
B)cephalocaudal pattern
C)ventrodorsal trend
D)frontoparietal pattern

Question 68

According to the "Where Does the Baby Sleep?" Culture and Human Behavior box, Mayan parents practice co-sleeping because it is important to:

A)be able to respond immediately when a baby cries during the night.
B)perform lengthy bedtime rituals, including singing lullabies and rocking to sleep.
C)wake up at the same time.
D)develop and encourage the infant's feelings of interdependence with other members of the family.

Question 69

Janeen touches her newborn's cheek. Her baby turns toward Janeen's hand and opens her mouth. Janeen has triggered which reflex?

A)the sucking reflex
B)the quickening reflex
C)the rooting reflex
D)the grasping reflex

Question 70

The term _____ refers to the fact that physical and motor skill development in infants tends to follow a "top to bottom" sequence.

A)proximodistal trend
B)cephalocaudal pattern
C)ventrodorsal trend
D)frontoparietal pattern

Question 71

Elizabeth is in the 15th week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Elizabeth's pregnancy is in the _____ period.

A)fetal
B)germinal
C)embryonic
D)zygotic

Question 72

During the peak periods of brain development, new cells are being generated at the rate of _____ per minute.

A)100 to 150
B)1 million
C)250,000
D)500 or 600

Question 73

The third and longest period of prenatal development, extending from the ninth week until birth, is called the _____ period.

A)fetal
B)germinal
C)zygotic
D)embryonic

Question 74

Young Tommy can roll over and grasp his rattle, but is not yet able to sit up without support. In terms of physical development, if he is like most normal infants, then he is approximately _____ months old.

A)11.5
B)14
C)6
D)4

Question 75

Surveys of family sleeping arrangements in more than a hundred cultures around the world revealed that infants customarily slept in the same room or bed as their mothers in:

A)the vast majority of cultures but not in the United States.
B)the United States but not in most other cultures.
C)only a small minority of cultures.
D)only the Mayan villages of Guatemala.

Question 76

Although baby Emma was only a few hours old, she would turn her head to continue gazing at which type of moving stimulus?

A)a red ball
B)a black-and-white mobile
C)a human face
D)a green block

Question 77

Connor and Mandy are two unrelated 13-month-old infants. Connor can already walk easily, but Mandy has yet to take her first steps. What is the most likely explanation for the difference between their ability levels?

A)Connor is brighter than Mandy since he is progressing through the stages of development more rapidly.
B)Mandy and Connor are both well within the normal age range for the development of these motor skills.
C)Connor's mother has taught him to walk, but Mandy's mother has not taught her to walk.
D)Mandy's inability to walk at 13 months is abnormal and may indicate the presence of other developmental problems.

Question 78

Marcie is 9 months old. If she is like other typically developing infants her age, Marcie will be able to:

A)walk very well without help.
B)build a tower out of two or more building block cubes.
C)stand while holding on to a chair or some other support structure.
D)stand alone quite well and take a few steps before falling down.

Question 79

The rooting, sucking, and grasping reflexes:

A)become stronger and more pronounced during the first six months of life.
B)gradually disappear over the first year of life and are replaced by voluntary behaviors.
C)disappear within the first month of life.
D)first appear at about three months of age.

Question 80

Sarah gave birth to a full-term healthy baby boy who weighed just over 9 pounds. Assuming that the infant is normal, his brain will be about _____ the size of an adult human brain and will weigh about _____.

A)one-half; one pound or more
B)one-quarter; one pound or less
C)one-sixth; one half-pound or less
D)one-tenth; one quarter-pound