Deck 9: The Respiratory System

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Question
During a vaginal delivery, what facilitates the removal of fetal lung fluid from the pulmonary system?

A) High PaO2
B) Low intrapulmonary pressures
C) Thoracic compression
D) Triaging of core functions
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Question
What is the length of the trachea in a small preterm infant?

A) 2 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 8 cm
Question
The fetus is potentially viable if born at the end of which stage of development?

A) Alveolar
B) Canalicular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Saccular
Question
Which factors contribute to maintaining a patent ductus arteriosus during fetal life?
1) Large amounts of fetal hemoglobin
2) Low PaO2
3) Presence of LDH
4) Presence of prostaglandins

A)1, 2, and 3
B)2 and 4
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Question
What maintains lung inflation during fetal development?

A) Fetal lung fluid
B) Radial tethering
C) Rigidity of the chest wall
D) Surfactant
Question
Developmental morphogenesis of the human respiratory system can be categorized into:

A) three periods.
B) five stages.
C) 6 weeks.
D) 40 weeks.
Question
What strong stimulus to the infant provides the impetus for the first breath?

A) Acidosis
B) Exposure to warmth
C) Fright from passing through the birth canal
D) High PaO2
Question
By what mechanism does gas exchange across the lung occur?

A) Active transport
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Facilitated transport
D) Simple diffusion
Question
In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale allows blood to flow between which two structures?

A) Bypass the liver and enter the inferior vena cava.
B) Pulmonary artery to aortic arch.
C) Right atrium to left atrium.
D) Right atrium to left ventricle.
Question
What would be a normal P50 for a fetus?

A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Question
What is meant by "internal respiration"?

A) Any gas exchange that occurs inside the body
B) Consumption of O2 in the mitochondria
C) Continuous absorption of O2 and excretion of carbon dioxide
D) Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissue
Question
Which of the following would NOT promote transition from fetal circulation to a normal extrauterine circulatory pattern?

A) Closure of the foramen ovale
B) Constriction of the ductus arteriosus
C) Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
D) Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Question
The fetus is potentially viable if born prematurely after how many weeks of gestation?

A) 12 to 16 weeks
B) 18 to 20 weeks
C) 24 to 26 weeks
D) 28 to 32 weeks
Question
Which factor contributes to increased likelihood of an upper airway obstruction in an infant compared to an adult?

A) Higher percentage of body fat
B) Higher volumes of sinus discharge
C) Relatively smaller head size
D) Tongue that is proportionally larger
Question
During which phase of fetal development do mature alveoli appear?

A) Alveolar
B) Canalicular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Saccular
Question
What percentage of right ventricular output is circulated through the fetal lungs?

A) 10%
B) 35%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Question
Which of the following is an index commonly used to determine relative lung maturity?

A) FRC/TLC ratio
B) L:S ratio
C) RQ ratio
D) SP-A
Question
By which of the following routes does blood flow through the umbilical cord between the placenta and the fetus?

A) One umbilical vein and one umbilical artery
B) One umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries
C) Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
D) Two umbilical veins and two umbilical arteries
Question
What is the primary purpose of the respiratory system?

A) Continuous absorption of oxygen (O2) and excretion of carbon dioxide
B) Filtering to prevent allergens and microbes from reaching the lungs
C) Transport oxygenated blood to the tissues
D) Warm and humidify inspired gas
Question
Abnormalities of the placenta that can cause intrauterine growth retardation or fetal asphyxia include which of the following?
1) Abnormal implantation of the placenta
2) Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
3) Decreased placental blood flow

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Question
Running vertically down each hemithorax anteriorly is an imaginary line that is used as an anatomical landmark. What is that line called?

A) Anterior axillary line
B) Midaxillary line
C) Midclavicular line
D) Midsternal line
Question
Which of rib pairs connect directly to the sternum?

A) 1 through 4
B) 1 through 7
C) 1 through 12
D) 11 through 12
Question
What external landmark can be used to show the highest point the dome of the right hemidiaphragm reaches in a healthy individual?

A) Fifth rib posteriorly
B) Sixth rib posteriorly
C) Seventh rib posteriorly
D) Eighth rib posteriorly
Question
What pulmonary disorder could lead to acute flattening of the diaphragm?

A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome
B) Asthma
C) Atelectasis
D) Pneumonia
Question
What is the physiologic result of the infants' more compliant thorax compared with that of an adult?

A) It is easier for infants to breathe.
B) Their functional residual capacity is reduced based on predicted body weight (PBW).
C) They breathe larger tidal volumes based on IBW.
D) They have less of a tendency to develop atelectasis.
Question
What is unique regarding the blood supply to the lung?

A) It receives blood from right and left ventricles.
B) It requires no dedicated blood supply as it exists in a gas environment.
C) Pulmonary venous drainage contributes to the normal anatomic shunt.
D) The pulmonary arteries are the primary source of O2 for lung structures.
Question
The intercostal arteries, veins, and nerves run through which of the following?

A) Costal groove on the top of each rib
B) Costal groove on the bottom of each rib
C) Fibers of the intercostal musculature
D) Surface of the parietal pleura
Question
Compared to a normal diaphragm, contraction of a diaphragm that is low and flat may result in which of the following?

A) Compression of the thoracic cavity
B) Enhanced venous return and thus cardiac output
C) Greater diaphragmatic efficiency
D) Larger than normal change in thoracic volume
Question
What is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left main stem bronchi?

A) Sternal angle
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Suprasternal notch
D) Xiphoid process
Question
Infants can generate auto-PEEP by which of the following methods?

A) Active expiration
B) Increased diaphragmatic excursion
C) Laryngeal braking
D) Retractions
Question
Approximately how many alveoli are there in a 10-year-old's lung?

A) 50 million
B) 200 million
C) 350 million
D) 480 million
Question
Which of the following muscles are considered primary muscles of ventilation?
1) Diaphragm
2) Intercostals
3) Scalenes
4) Sternomastoid

A)1, 3, and 4
B)1 and 2
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Question
What is the name of the thin serous membrane that covers the inner layer of the thoracic wall?

A) Cupula
B) Mesothelioma
C) Parietal pleura
D) Visceral pleura
Question
Where does the sternal angle lie?

A) At the depression in the body of the sternum to which the clavicles attach
B) At the join between the manubrium and sternal body
C) At the superior edge of the sternum
D) Where the xiphoid process connects to the sternum
Question
What is the function of the thorax?

A) Facilitate digestion.
B) Heat, humidify, and filter gases.
C) Protect the vital organs.
D) Vocalization.
Question
What is the name of the upper portion of the sternum?

A) Angle of Louis
B) Manubrium
C) Vertebral process
D) Xiphoid process
Question
What does the "pump handle" movement of rib pairs 2 through 7 achieve?

A) Anchor of the upper chest for diaphragmatic contraction
B) Diminish of the energy wasted by inefficient muscular contraction
C) Increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest
D) Increase in the lateral dimensions of the chest
Question
What are rib pairs 11 and 12 known as?

A) False ribs
B) Faux ribs
C) Floating ribs
D) True ribs
Question
Approximately what percent of the normal changes in thoracic volume during quiet inspiration is due to the action of the diaphragm?

A) 15
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
Question
How far is the diaphragm pulled down during tidal breathing?

A) 1 to 2 cm
B) 3 to 5 cm
C) 6 to 8 cm
D) 8 to 10 cm
Question
Why is the left lung narrower than the right lung?

A) Liver compresses the left lung.
B) Mediastinal organs push laterally into the left hemithorax.
C) There is poorer blood flow during fetal development.
D) There is upward pressure of the abdominal contents.
Question
When a COPD patient leans forward braced in a tripod position, this lends particular advantage to which accessory muscles of inspiration?

A) External intercostals
B) Pectoralis
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
Question
What will most commonly blunt the costophrenic angle as seen on chest radiograph in an upright individual?

A) Air
B) Bile
C) Excess fluids
D) Liver on the right, intestines on the left
Question
What is the name given to the acute angle formed by the costal pleura joining the diaphragmatic pleura?

A) Angle of Louis
B) Costophrenic angle
C) Diaphragmatic groove
D) Oblique fissure
Question
The abdominal muscles can actually contribute to inspiration by:

A) contracting at end-exhalation.
B) contracting at end-inhalation.
C) causing a cough.
D) increasing end-inspiratory lung volume.
Question
Limited, short-term spontaneous ventilation is possible in a patient with a paralyzed diaphragm because of_____________________.

A) reflex diaphragm activity
B) accessory muscle use
C) active exhalation
D) high intraabdominal pressures
Question
To what structures do the parietal pleural membranes adhere?

A) Fissures
B) Intrapulmonary bronchi
C) Lung
D) Mediastinum
Question
Which accessory muscles are active during resting and active inspiration and pull up on all the ribs expanding the thorax?

A) External intercostals
B) Internal intercostals
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
Question
Which of the following statements describes a normal adult lung?

A) The left lung is bisected by two fissures.
B) The left lung has an upper, a middle, and a lower lobe.
C) The right lung has only an upper and a lower lobe.
D) The right lung has three lobes and two fissures.
Question
Which of the following nerves innervates the diaphragm?

A) Glossopharyngeal
B) Phrenic
C) Seventh cranial
D) Vagus
Question
Approximately how far do the normal adult lungs extend above the clavicles?

A) 2 cm
B) 3 cm
C) 4 cm
D) 5 cm
Question
The nerves that innervate the diaphragm arise from which area?

A) Lumbar region of the spine
B) Sacral vertebrae 4 and 5
C) Spinal plexuses at T2 to T11
D) Spinal nerves C3 to C5
Question
What is the lowest level on the spinal cord that an injury could cause diaphragmatic impairment or paralysis?

A) C3
B) L2
C) S5
D) T4
Question
Which accessory muscles of ventilation work to pull the ribs closer together?

A) External intercostals
B) Internal intercostals
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
Question
As ventilatory muscles, the sternocleidomastoids do which of the following?

A) They elevate the upper chest, increasing chest anteroposterior diameter.
B) They elevate the ribs and decrease chest anteroposterior diameter.
C) They increase lateral chest movement during inspiration.
D) They lower the sternum, thus increasing chest anteroposterior diameter.
Question
What is the mediastinum?

A) Membranous sac surrounding the heart and great vessels
B) Middle layer of muscle fibers constituting the heart
C) Point of division of the trachea into the bronchi
D) Structure separating the right and left thoracic cavities
Question
What is the function of the very small amount of pleural fluid that is found in the pleural space?

A) Composes part of anatomic shunt.
B) Liquid barrier for pathogens.
C) Part of pulmonary blood flow.
D) Reduces friction.
Question
Which of the following is the most important ventilatory function of the scalene muscles?

A) Activate if intrathoracic pressure falls to -40 cm H2O.
B) Elevate and fix the first seven ribs.
C) Lift upper chest particularly during times of high ventilatory demand.
D) Support the trachea within the thorax during heavy exercise.
Question
Which of the muscles below when stimulated will contract and push up on the diaphragm?
1) External intercostals
2) External obliques
3) Internal obliques
4) Rectus abdominous

A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Question
What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?

A) The lung will appear to undergo no change.
B) The lung will collapse.
C) The lung will expand.
D) The response of the lung will depend on its age and pathology.
Question
How does the lung parenchyma receive most of its O2?

A) From the alveolar gases
B) From the bronchial arteries/capillaries
C) From the pulmonary arteries/capillaries
D) From the pulmonary lymphatic system
Question
Via what pathway does much of the bronchial venous drainage occur?

A) Bronchial veins emptying into the inferior vena cava
B) Bronchopulmonary veins emptying into pulmonary veins
C) Direct connections between bronchial and pulmonary arteries
D) Thebesian venous drainage into the heart chambers
Question
Which of the following statements is/are true of the pulmonary lymphatic system?
1) It consists of both superficial and deep vessels.
2) It drains into the right lymphatic or thoracic duct.
3) Vessels begin as dead-end lymphatic channels in the lung.
4) With phagocytes, it defends against foreign material.

A)1, 3, and 4 only
B)2, 3, and 4 only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
Question
Compared with the systemic circulation under normal conditions, pressure in the pulmonary circulation is:

A) higher.
B) lower.
C) the same.
D) not connected.
Question
The pulmonary venous circulation does which of the following?
1) Delivers oxygenated blood back to the heart.
2) Delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
3) Empties into the left atrium.
4) Empties into the right atrium.

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1 and 3 only
Question
What is the name of the reflex associated with the sensory stimulation of the pulmonary stretch receptors that stimulates a deeper breath upon inspiration?

A) Carotid sinus
B) Head's paradoxical
C) Hering-Breuer
D) Vagovagal
Question
What does the detection of lymphatic channels on standard chest radiographs indicate?

A) Abnormally low pressures in the lymphatic channels
B) Anastomoses with the pulmonary circulation
C) Normal fibrotic changes that occur with aging
D) System that is overwhelmed by excessive fluid
Question
How would lung perfusion in a "zone 1" area best be described?

A) Increased
B) Normal or average
C) Reduced
D) Unaffected
Question
Which of the following statements is false regarding the pulmonary circulation?

A) Pulmonary blood flow is highly dependent on gravity.
B) The pulmonary circulation is a low-pressure system.
C) Toward the top of the upright lung, blood flow is high.
D) Toward the top of the upright lung, blood flow is low.
Question
What is the primary mechanism that stops the lungs from collapsing at the end of exhalation?

A) Radial tethers, stretched to their maximum length, then halt lung collapse.
B) Surfactant neutralizes the tendency of the lung to collapse.
C) There is a tendency of the chest wall to lock at the level of FRC.
D) There is an equal opposing tendency of the chest wall to expand.
Question
Which of the following describes a function of pulmonary circulation?

A) Breakdown of angiotensin II
B) Filtering of blood clots
C) Production of erythropoietin
D) Regulation of breathing
Question
What determines the airway diameter in the normal lung?

A) Balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic tone
B) In large part, the amount of patient effort
C) Activity level of the submucosal glands
D) Amount of dopamine present in the airway walls
Question
What is the effect of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerves?

A) Diaphragmatic paralysis
B) Pulmonary circulatory failure
C) Inactivation of pulmonary surfactant production
D) Vocal cord impairment or paralysis
Question
How does the lung respond to regional lung hypoxia?

A) Bronchial artery vasoconstriction
B) Bronchial artery vasodilation
C) Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
D) Pulmonary artery vasodilation
Question
How does the body compensate for a pulmonary embolus that occludes a branch of the pulmonary artery?

A) Increased bronchial arterial flow to the area
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Pulmonary arteriole and metarteriole vasodilation
D) Release of prostaglandins to fight inflammation
Question
Fluid transport to and from the lungs is provided by which of the following?
1) Bronchial circulation
2) Lymphatic system
3) Pulmonary circulation

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
Question
What forces establish the sub-atmospheric pressure found in the pleural space?

A) Contraction of accessory muscles of inspiration
B) Contraction of expiratory muscles
C) Equal opposing tendency of the chest wall to expand and lung to collapse
D) Effect of gravity, particularly at the base of the lungs
Question
What is the name of the negative feedback reflex associated with the termination of inspiration?

A) Carotid sinus
B) Head's paradoxical
C) Hering-Breuer
D) Vagovagal
Question
The pulmonary arterial circulation does which of the following?
1) Delivers oxygenated blood back to the heart.
2) Delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
3) Originates on the left side of the heart.
4) Originates on the right side of the heart.

A)1 and 4 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)2 and 3 only
Question
Pressures in the pulmonary circulation are lower than those in the systemic circulation because of what characteristic of the pulmonary circulation?

A) Higher resistance than the systemic circulation
B) Less blood flow than the systemic circulation
C) Lower resistance than the systemic circulation
D) More blood flow than the systemic circulation
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Deck 9: The Respiratory System
1
During a vaginal delivery, what facilitates the removal of fetal lung fluid from the pulmonary system?

A) High PaO2
B) Low intrapulmonary pressures
C) Thoracic compression
D) Triaging of core functions
C
Explanation: During normal vaginal delivery, approximately one-third of the lung fluid is cleared by compression of the thorax in the birth canal.
2
What is the length of the trachea in a small preterm infant?

A) 2 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 8 cm
A
Explanation: In small preterm infants, the trachea may be only 2 cm long and 2 to 3 mm wide.
3
The fetus is potentially viable if born at the end of which stage of development?

A) Alveolar
B) Canalicular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Saccular
B
Explanation: At the end of the canalicular period (24 to 26 weeks of gestation), the fetus, if born, is capable of sufficient gas exchange and is viable if supported completely with an artificial airway, O2, ventilatory support, and surfactant administration.
4
Which factors contribute to maintaining a patent ductus arteriosus during fetal life?
1) Large amounts of fetal hemoglobin
2) Low PaO2
3) Presence of LDH
4) Presence of prostaglandins

A)1, 2, and 3
B)2 and 4
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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5
What maintains lung inflation during fetal development?

A) Fetal lung fluid
B) Radial tethering
C) Rigidity of the chest wall
D) Surfactant
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6
Developmental morphogenesis of the human respiratory system can be categorized into:

A) three periods.
B) five stages.
C) 6 weeks.
D) 40 weeks.
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7
What strong stimulus to the infant provides the impetus for the first breath?

A) Acidosis
B) Exposure to warmth
C) Fright from passing through the birth canal
D) High PaO2
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8
By what mechanism does gas exchange across the lung occur?

A) Active transport
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Facilitated transport
D) Simple diffusion
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9
In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale allows blood to flow between which two structures?

A) Bypass the liver and enter the inferior vena cava.
B) Pulmonary artery to aortic arch.
C) Right atrium to left atrium.
D) Right atrium to left ventricle.
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10
What would be a normal P50 for a fetus?

A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
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11
What is meant by "internal respiration"?

A) Any gas exchange that occurs inside the body
B) Consumption of O2 in the mitochondria
C) Continuous absorption of O2 and excretion of carbon dioxide
D) Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissue
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12
Which of the following would NOT promote transition from fetal circulation to a normal extrauterine circulatory pattern?

A) Closure of the foramen ovale
B) Constriction of the ductus arteriosus
C) Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance
D) Decreased systemic vascular resistance
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13
The fetus is potentially viable if born prematurely after how many weeks of gestation?

A) 12 to 16 weeks
B) 18 to 20 weeks
C) 24 to 26 weeks
D) 28 to 32 weeks
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14
Which factor contributes to increased likelihood of an upper airway obstruction in an infant compared to an adult?

A) Higher percentage of body fat
B) Higher volumes of sinus discharge
C) Relatively smaller head size
D) Tongue that is proportionally larger
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15
During which phase of fetal development do mature alveoli appear?

A) Alveolar
B) Canalicular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Saccular
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16
What percentage of right ventricular output is circulated through the fetal lungs?

A) 10%
B) 35%
C) 75%
D) 100%
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17
Which of the following is an index commonly used to determine relative lung maturity?

A) FRC/TLC ratio
B) L:S ratio
C) RQ ratio
D) SP-A
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18
By which of the following routes does blood flow through the umbilical cord between the placenta and the fetus?

A) One umbilical vein and one umbilical artery
B) One umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries
C) Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
D) Two umbilical veins and two umbilical arteries
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19
What is the primary purpose of the respiratory system?

A) Continuous absorption of oxygen (O2) and excretion of carbon dioxide
B) Filtering to prevent allergens and microbes from reaching the lungs
C) Transport oxygenated blood to the tissues
D) Warm and humidify inspired gas
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20
Abnormalities of the placenta that can cause intrauterine growth retardation or fetal asphyxia include which of the following?
1) Abnormal implantation of the placenta
2) Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
3) Decreased placental blood flow

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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21
Running vertically down each hemithorax anteriorly is an imaginary line that is used as an anatomical landmark. What is that line called?

A) Anterior axillary line
B) Midaxillary line
C) Midclavicular line
D) Midsternal line
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22
Which of rib pairs connect directly to the sternum?

A) 1 through 4
B) 1 through 7
C) 1 through 12
D) 11 through 12
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23
What external landmark can be used to show the highest point the dome of the right hemidiaphragm reaches in a healthy individual?

A) Fifth rib posteriorly
B) Sixth rib posteriorly
C) Seventh rib posteriorly
D) Eighth rib posteriorly
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24
What pulmonary disorder could lead to acute flattening of the diaphragm?

A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome
B) Asthma
C) Atelectasis
D) Pneumonia
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
25
What is the physiologic result of the infants' more compliant thorax compared with that of an adult?

A) It is easier for infants to breathe.
B) Their functional residual capacity is reduced based on predicted body weight (PBW).
C) They breathe larger tidal volumes based on IBW.
D) They have less of a tendency to develop atelectasis.
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k this deck
26
What is unique regarding the blood supply to the lung?

A) It receives blood from right and left ventricles.
B) It requires no dedicated blood supply as it exists in a gas environment.
C) Pulmonary venous drainage contributes to the normal anatomic shunt.
D) The pulmonary arteries are the primary source of O2 for lung structures.
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Unlock for access to all 129 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
27
The intercostal arteries, veins, and nerves run through which of the following?

A) Costal groove on the top of each rib
B) Costal groove on the bottom of each rib
C) Fibers of the intercostal musculature
D) Surface of the parietal pleura
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
28
Compared to a normal diaphragm, contraction of a diaphragm that is low and flat may result in which of the following?

A) Compression of the thoracic cavity
B) Enhanced venous return and thus cardiac output
C) Greater diaphragmatic efficiency
D) Larger than normal change in thoracic volume
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
29
What is the name of the external landmark that identifies the point at which the trachea branches into the right and left main stem bronchi?

A) Sternal angle
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Suprasternal notch
D) Xiphoid process
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
30
Infants can generate auto-PEEP by which of the following methods?

A) Active expiration
B) Increased diaphragmatic excursion
C) Laryngeal braking
D) Retractions
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
31
Approximately how many alveoli are there in a 10-year-old's lung?

A) 50 million
B) 200 million
C) 350 million
D) 480 million
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k this deck
32
Which of the following muscles are considered primary muscles of ventilation?
1) Diaphragm
2) Intercostals
3) Scalenes
4) Sternomastoid

A)1, 3, and 4
B)1 and 2
C)3 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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33
What is the name of the thin serous membrane that covers the inner layer of the thoracic wall?

A) Cupula
B) Mesothelioma
C) Parietal pleura
D) Visceral pleura
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34
Where does the sternal angle lie?

A) At the depression in the body of the sternum to which the clavicles attach
B) At the join between the manubrium and sternal body
C) At the superior edge of the sternum
D) Where the xiphoid process connects to the sternum
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35
What is the function of the thorax?

A) Facilitate digestion.
B) Heat, humidify, and filter gases.
C) Protect the vital organs.
D) Vocalization.
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36
What is the name of the upper portion of the sternum?

A) Angle of Louis
B) Manubrium
C) Vertebral process
D) Xiphoid process
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37
What does the "pump handle" movement of rib pairs 2 through 7 achieve?

A) Anchor of the upper chest for diaphragmatic contraction
B) Diminish of the energy wasted by inefficient muscular contraction
C) Increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest
D) Increase in the lateral dimensions of the chest
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38
What are rib pairs 11 and 12 known as?

A) False ribs
B) Faux ribs
C) Floating ribs
D) True ribs
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39
Approximately what percent of the normal changes in thoracic volume during quiet inspiration is due to the action of the diaphragm?

A) 15
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
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40
How far is the diaphragm pulled down during tidal breathing?

A) 1 to 2 cm
B) 3 to 5 cm
C) 6 to 8 cm
D) 8 to 10 cm
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41
Why is the left lung narrower than the right lung?

A) Liver compresses the left lung.
B) Mediastinal organs push laterally into the left hemithorax.
C) There is poorer blood flow during fetal development.
D) There is upward pressure of the abdominal contents.
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42
When a COPD patient leans forward braced in a tripod position, this lends particular advantage to which accessory muscles of inspiration?

A) External intercostals
B) Pectoralis
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
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43
What will most commonly blunt the costophrenic angle as seen on chest radiograph in an upright individual?

A) Air
B) Bile
C) Excess fluids
D) Liver on the right, intestines on the left
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44
What is the name given to the acute angle formed by the costal pleura joining the diaphragmatic pleura?

A) Angle of Louis
B) Costophrenic angle
C) Diaphragmatic groove
D) Oblique fissure
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45
The abdominal muscles can actually contribute to inspiration by:

A) contracting at end-exhalation.
B) contracting at end-inhalation.
C) causing a cough.
D) increasing end-inspiratory lung volume.
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46
Limited, short-term spontaneous ventilation is possible in a patient with a paralyzed diaphragm because of_____________________.

A) reflex diaphragm activity
B) accessory muscle use
C) active exhalation
D) high intraabdominal pressures
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47
To what structures do the parietal pleural membranes adhere?

A) Fissures
B) Intrapulmonary bronchi
C) Lung
D) Mediastinum
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48
Which accessory muscles are active during resting and active inspiration and pull up on all the ribs expanding the thorax?

A) External intercostals
B) Internal intercostals
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
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49
Which of the following statements describes a normal adult lung?

A) The left lung is bisected by two fissures.
B) The left lung has an upper, a middle, and a lower lobe.
C) The right lung has only an upper and a lower lobe.
D) The right lung has three lobes and two fissures.
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50
Which of the following nerves innervates the diaphragm?

A) Glossopharyngeal
B) Phrenic
C) Seventh cranial
D) Vagus
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51
Approximately how far do the normal adult lungs extend above the clavicles?

A) 2 cm
B) 3 cm
C) 4 cm
D) 5 cm
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52
The nerves that innervate the diaphragm arise from which area?

A) Lumbar region of the spine
B) Sacral vertebrae 4 and 5
C) Spinal plexuses at T2 to T11
D) Spinal nerves C3 to C5
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53
What is the lowest level on the spinal cord that an injury could cause diaphragmatic impairment or paralysis?

A) C3
B) L2
C) S5
D) T4
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54
Which accessory muscles of ventilation work to pull the ribs closer together?

A) External intercostals
B) Internal intercostals
C) Scalenes
D) Sternocleidomastoids
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55
As ventilatory muscles, the sternocleidomastoids do which of the following?

A) They elevate the upper chest, increasing chest anteroposterior diameter.
B) They elevate the ribs and decrease chest anteroposterior diameter.
C) They increase lateral chest movement during inspiration.
D) They lower the sternum, thus increasing chest anteroposterior diameter.
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56
What is the mediastinum?

A) Membranous sac surrounding the heart and great vessels
B) Middle layer of muscle fibers constituting the heart
C) Point of division of the trachea into the bronchi
D) Structure separating the right and left thoracic cavities
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57
What is the function of the very small amount of pleural fluid that is found in the pleural space?

A) Composes part of anatomic shunt.
B) Liquid barrier for pathogens.
C) Part of pulmonary blood flow.
D) Reduces friction.
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58
Which of the following is the most important ventilatory function of the scalene muscles?

A) Activate if intrathoracic pressure falls to -40 cm H2O.
B) Elevate and fix the first seven ribs.
C) Lift upper chest particularly during times of high ventilatory demand.
D) Support the trachea within the thorax during heavy exercise.
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59
Which of the muscles below when stimulated will contract and push up on the diaphragm?
1) External intercostals
2) External obliques
3) Internal obliques
4) Rectus abdominous

A)1, 2, and 3 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)2, 3, and 4 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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60
What will happen when the lung is surgically removed from the thorax?

A) The lung will appear to undergo no change.
B) The lung will collapse.
C) The lung will expand.
D) The response of the lung will depend on its age and pathology.
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61
How does the lung parenchyma receive most of its O2?

A) From the alveolar gases
B) From the bronchial arteries/capillaries
C) From the pulmonary arteries/capillaries
D) From the pulmonary lymphatic system
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62
Via what pathway does much of the bronchial venous drainage occur?

A) Bronchial veins emptying into the inferior vena cava
B) Bronchopulmonary veins emptying into pulmonary veins
C) Direct connections between bronchial and pulmonary arteries
D) Thebesian venous drainage into the heart chambers
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63
Which of the following statements is/are true of the pulmonary lymphatic system?
1) It consists of both superficial and deep vessels.
2) It drains into the right lymphatic or thoracic duct.
3) Vessels begin as dead-end lymphatic channels in the lung.
4) With phagocytes, it defends against foreign material.

A)1, 3, and 4 only
B)2, 3, and 4 only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, 3, and 4
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64
Compared with the systemic circulation under normal conditions, pressure in the pulmonary circulation is:

A) higher.
B) lower.
C) the same.
D) not connected.
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65
The pulmonary venous circulation does which of the following?
1) Delivers oxygenated blood back to the heart.
2) Delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
3) Empties into the left atrium.
4) Empties into the right atrium.

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 4 only
C)2 and 4 only
D)1 and 3 only
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66
What is the name of the reflex associated with the sensory stimulation of the pulmonary stretch receptors that stimulates a deeper breath upon inspiration?

A) Carotid sinus
B) Head's paradoxical
C) Hering-Breuer
D) Vagovagal
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67
What does the detection of lymphatic channels on standard chest radiographs indicate?

A) Abnormally low pressures in the lymphatic channels
B) Anastomoses with the pulmonary circulation
C) Normal fibrotic changes that occur with aging
D) System that is overwhelmed by excessive fluid
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68
How would lung perfusion in a "zone 1" area best be described?

A) Increased
B) Normal or average
C) Reduced
D) Unaffected
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69
Which of the following statements is false regarding the pulmonary circulation?

A) Pulmonary blood flow is highly dependent on gravity.
B) The pulmonary circulation is a low-pressure system.
C) Toward the top of the upright lung, blood flow is high.
D) Toward the top of the upright lung, blood flow is low.
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70
What is the primary mechanism that stops the lungs from collapsing at the end of exhalation?

A) Radial tethers, stretched to their maximum length, then halt lung collapse.
B) Surfactant neutralizes the tendency of the lung to collapse.
C) There is a tendency of the chest wall to lock at the level of FRC.
D) There is an equal opposing tendency of the chest wall to expand.
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71
Which of the following describes a function of pulmonary circulation?

A) Breakdown of angiotensin II
B) Filtering of blood clots
C) Production of erythropoietin
D) Regulation of breathing
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72
What determines the airway diameter in the normal lung?

A) Balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic tone
B) In large part, the amount of patient effort
C) Activity level of the submucosal glands
D) Amount of dopamine present in the airway walls
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73
What is the effect of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerves?

A) Diaphragmatic paralysis
B) Pulmonary circulatory failure
C) Inactivation of pulmonary surfactant production
D) Vocal cord impairment or paralysis
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74
How does the lung respond to regional lung hypoxia?

A) Bronchial artery vasoconstriction
B) Bronchial artery vasodilation
C) Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
D) Pulmonary artery vasodilation
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75
How does the body compensate for a pulmonary embolus that occludes a branch of the pulmonary artery?

A) Increased bronchial arterial flow to the area
B) Increased cardiac output
C) Pulmonary arteriole and metarteriole vasodilation
D) Release of prostaglandins to fight inflammation
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76
Fluid transport to and from the lungs is provided by which of the following?
1) Bronchial circulation
2) Lymphatic system
3) Pulmonary circulation

A)2 and 3 only
B)1 and 3 only
C)2 only
D)1, 2, and 3
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77
What forces establish the sub-atmospheric pressure found in the pleural space?

A) Contraction of accessory muscles of inspiration
B) Contraction of expiratory muscles
C) Equal opposing tendency of the chest wall to expand and lung to collapse
D) Effect of gravity, particularly at the base of the lungs
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78
What is the name of the negative feedback reflex associated with the termination of inspiration?

A) Carotid sinus
B) Head's paradoxical
C) Hering-Breuer
D) Vagovagal
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79
The pulmonary arterial circulation does which of the following?
1) Delivers oxygenated blood back to the heart.
2) Delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
3) Originates on the left side of the heart.
4) Originates on the right side of the heart.

A)1 and 4 only
B)2 and 4 only
C)1 and 3 only
D)2 and 3 only
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80
Pressures in the pulmonary circulation are lower than those in the systemic circulation because of what characteristic of the pulmonary circulation?

A) Higher resistance than the systemic circulation
B) Less blood flow than the systemic circulation
C) Lower resistance than the systemic circulation
D) More blood flow than the systemic circulation
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Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 129 flashcards in this deck.