Deck 15: Point-Of-Care Testing

Question 1

A trend in quality control results on a Levy-Jennings chart indicates:

A) possible instrument malfunction.
B) use of new reagents and controls.
C) gradual deterioration of reagents.
D) both A and C

Answer 1

C

Question 2

When performing point-of-care testing (POCT), a phlebotomist must be sure to document results of:

A) patient tests.
B) quality control.
C) electronic controls.
D) all of the above

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A phlebotomist running a test on a standardized sample received from a monitoring agency is performing:

A) proficiency testing.
B) quality control.
C) waived testing.
D) documentation.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following patients may have anemia?

A) Male patient with a hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
B) Female patient with a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
C) Female patient with a hemoglobin of 17 g/dL
D) Male patient with a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

Question 5

According to Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), a test that can be purchased over the counter for home use is called:

A) waived.
B) moderate complexity.
C) inaccurate.
D) high complexity.

Question 6

The recommended specimen for urine pregnancy testing is a:

A) random specimen.
B) first-morning specimen.
C) midstream clean-catch specimen.
D) timed specimen.

Question 7

To determine the proper maintenance of a Glucometer, the phlebotomist should:

A) attend a proficiency class.
B) read the package insert.
C) contact the manufacturer.
D) consult with another phlebotomist.

Question 8

Proficiency testing is required for all levels of Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) complexity except:

A) waived.
B) provider-performed microscopy.
C) moderate.
D) high.

Question 9

A procedure manual differs from a package insert by containing:

A) reagent storage requirements.
B) sources of error.
C) test procedure steps.
D) instructions for recording results.

Question 10

Immunoassay kits must contain all of the following except:

A) reaction cards.
B) positive and negative controls.
C) extraction solution.
D) color developer.

Question 11

Quality control of point-of-care testing (POCT) should be performed by:

A) the POCT supervisor.
B) the person performing patient testing.
C) a POCT performer and a supervisor.
D) a medical technologist.

Question 12

The standardization of an instrument used for point-of-care testing (POCT) is called:

A) quality control.
B) calibration.
C) documentation.
D) reliability.

Question 13

Point-of-care testing (POCT) is routinely performed in all of the following areas except the:

A) physician's office.
B) intensive care unit.
C) clinical laboratory.
D) operating room.

Question 14

The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) '88 regulations are administered by:

A) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
C) COLA.
D) Joint Commission (JC).

Question 15

A phlebotomist is authorized to perform all of the following tests on urine except:

A) physical examination.
B) chemical examination.
C) microscopic examination.
D) pregnancy test.

Question 16

Advantages of point-of-care testing (POCT) include all of the following except:

A) faster turnaround time of test results.
B) providing faster patient treatment.
C) limiting the amount of blood needed for testing.
D) providing a wider variety of laboratory tests.

Question 17

If a phlebotomist is not performing a test correctly, this will be detected through:

A) documentation.
B) calibration.
C) panic values.
D) quality control.

Question 18

Which of the following statements does not refer to point-of-care testing (POCT)?

A) Testing is performed at the patient's bedside.
B) Portable instruments are available for testing.
C) A central laboratory must be present.
D) Phlebotomists are trained to perform POCT.

Question 19

A shift in quality control results on a Levy-Jennings chart indicates:

A) possible instrument malfunction.
B) gradual deterioration of reagents.
C) the need to replace an instrument light source.
D) both A and B

Question 20

A HemoCue instrument can be used to measure:

A) cholesterol.
B) glucose.
C) hemoglobin.
D) both B and C

Question 21

Chemical results of a urinalysis are read:

A) using a microscope.
B) under ultraviolet light.
C) by comparing with a specified color chart.
D) by placing the reagent strip into a cuvette.

Question 22

The physical examination of urine includes reports on:

A) odor and turbidity.
B) color and appearance.
C) clarity and foam color.
D) color and blood.

Question 23

The appearance of a blue color in a Hemoccult test is indicative of:

A) specimen contamination.
B) the presence of blood.
C) a normal result.
D) expired guaiac reagent.

Question 24

Failure to obtain quality control results that are within acceptable limits when performing a blood glucose test may be caused by all of the following except:

A) storing the reagent strips in the refrigerator.
B) the control covering half of the testing area.
C) setting the reagent strip code on the monitor.
D) prolonged exposure of reagent strips to room air.

Question 25

When instructing a patient prior to the collection of a specimen for occult blood testing, the phlebotomist should:

A) stress the need to fast for 12 hours.
B) explain the significance of the test.
C) provide a schedule for collection times.
D) provide a list of foods not to be eaten.

Question 26

A patient's glucose result of 350 mg/dL is considered:

A) out of control.
B) normal.
C) hypoglycemic.
D) a critical value.

Question 27

Two swabs are collected for rapid streptococcus testing so that:

A) a routine culture can be performed, if necessary.
B) the test can be repeated, if necessary.
C) they can be rotated together for even distribution.
D) the test can be run in duplicate.

Question 28

All of the following tests can be performed by point-of-care testing (POCT) instruments except:

A) electrolytes.
B) platelet counts.
C) hematocrits.
D) arterial blood gases.

Question 29

Errors in performance of a chemical examination of urine include all of the following except:

A) incompletely dipping the strip in the urine.
B) leaving the reagent strip in the urine for 2 minutes.
C) comparing the color reactions to a chart after 10 minutes.
D) reading the color reactions at specified times.

Question 30

A decrease in the amount of oxygen reaching the cells can be detected using a(an):

A) reagent strip.
B) HEMOCHRON Jr.
C) HemoCue.
D) Accu-Chek.

Question 31

The advantage of rapid group A streptococcus kits is that:

A) they detect small numbers of bacteria.
B) false-negative reactions do not occur.
C) cultures are frequently contaminated.
D) the results are available sooner.

Question 32

If the Cholestech LDX goes into "locking" mode, the phlebotomist must:

A) rerun the quality control.
B) clean the calibrating magnetic strip.
C) perform an optics check.
D) contact a technical service representative.

Question 33

Blood glucose point-of-care testing (POCT) instruments work on the principle of:

A) reflectance of color intensity.
B) light transmittance through a colored solution.
C) electrical potential of the glucose reaction.
D) both A and C

Question 34

All of the following results from the Cholestech LDX are measured except the:

A) triglycerides.
B) high-density lipoprotein (HDL).
C) low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
D) total cholesterol.

Question 35

The HemoCue can accurately measure hemoglobin concentration in patients with high white blood cell counts because the reaction:

A) takes place in a cuvette.
B) is read in a photometer.
C) is read at two different wavelengths.
D) produces a colored complex.

Question 36

Point-of-care testing (POCT) cholesterol testing is performed primarily:

A) to monitor patients in the intensive care unit (ICU).
B) following transplant surgery.
C) on patients taking steroids.
D) as a health screening test.

Question 37

Which of the following immunoassay kits are designed to detect antibodies?

A) Infectious mononucleosis and Helicobacter pylori
B) Troponin T and group A streptococcus
C) Troponin T and Helicobacter pylori
D) Pregnancy tests and group A streptococcus

Question 38

All of the following are point-of-care testing (POCT) for coagulation except the:

A) prothrombin time (PT).
B) activated coagulation time (ACT).
C) PO₂.
D) activate partial thromboplastin time (APTT).

Question 39

Specimens for activated clotting times performed on the HEMOCHRON Jr. are obtained by:

A) venipuncture.
B) dermal puncture.
C) arterial puncture.
D) both A and B

Question 40

Transcutaneous bilirubin testing:

A) is an invasive procedure.
B) cannot be used to monitor the need for an exchange transfusion.
C) is not recommended as a screening procedure.
D) is performed on the plantar surface of the heel.

Question 41

Point-of-care testing (POCT) is performed as part of patient-focused care.

Question 42

Transcutaneous bilirubin testing may be requested on a nonjaundiced newborn.

Question 43

On-site inspections are not required for the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) provider-performed microscopy category.

Question 44

Point-of-care testing (POCT) analyzers are available to measure arterial blood gases and electrolytes.

Question 45

Rapid tests for group A streptococcus detect:

A) group A streptococcus antigens.
B) group A streptococcus substrate.
C) antibodies to group A streptococcus.
D) enzymes produced by group A streptococcus.

Question 46

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) requires documentation of competency assessment for personnel performing point-of-care testing (POCT).

Question 47

A urinalysis should be performed:

A) within 10 minutes of specimen collection.
B) within 2 hours of specimen collection.
C) before the end of the shift.
D) when laboratory personnel are present.

Question 48

The most standardized method of reporting a prothrombin time result is the international normalized ratio (INR).

Question 49

Package inserts can be interchanged between kits from different manufacturers.

Question 50

The purpose of enzyme immunoassay tests for pregnancy is the:

A) detection of human chorionic gonadotropin.
B) reaction of placental cells with enzymes.
C) conjugation of antibodies and urine or serum.
D) reaction of human chorionic gonadotropin with antibody to produce a color.

Question 51

A patient with a cholesterol result of 300 mg/dL is in danger of developing:

A) colorectal cancer.
B) coronary artery disease.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) liver disease.

Question 52

All of the following are required for correct urine reagent strip care and handling except:

A) storage in a dark bottle.
B) sealing the container immediately after removing a strip.
C) removing the desiccant from the bottle.
D) storage at room temperature.

Question 53

Transcutaneous bilirubin testing is not affected by skin pigmentation.

Question 54

Aspirin should be avoided for a week prior to collection of an occult blood sample because it:

A) may cause a false-positive result.
B) neutralizes guaiac reagent.
C) causes discoloration of the stool.
D) may cause a false-negative reaction.

Question 55

A dilute urine specimen will have a darker yellow color than a concentrated specimen.

Question 56

Most point-of-care testing (POCT) falls into the provider-performed Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) complexity category.

Question 57

A point-of-care testing (POCT) facility that monitors Coumadin therapy needs an instrument that measures the activated coagulation time (ACT).

Question 58

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) '88 regulations only apply to point-of-care testing (POCT) when the patient is charged for the test.

Question 59

Failure to perform a pregnancy test on a first-morning urine specimen may cause:

A) a false-positive reaction.
B) a false-negative reaction.
C) interference with the enzyme reaction.
D) incomplete binding of antigen and antibody.