Deck 3: Prenatal Development and Birth

Question 1

Identical twins originate from a single zygote that divides into two parts, each of which develops into a separate individual.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

In several studies of children conceived through IVF, developmentalists have discovered serious negative consequences resulting from cryopreservation (freezing and thawing of fertilized eggs).

Answer 2

False

Question 3

More boys are conceived than girls, but fewer boys are born.

Answer 3

True

Question 4

One group at risk for Tay-Sachs Disease are French Canadians living in the Gaspé region of Quebec.

Question 5

The age of viability is approximately 24 weeks of gestation.

Question 6

Teratogens fall within three broad categories: mutagenic, environmental, and unknown.

Question 7

A zygote's sex is determined by the sperm's sex chromosome.

Question 8

A zygote is a single cell, created when sperm and ovum unite.

Question 9

Chronic illness in a mother can affect the prenatal development of her unborn child.

Question 10

Gestational diabetes is a risk to a pregnancy because it may cause stunting of the fetus's growth and may result in a low birth weight infant.

Question 11

Artificial insemination is more successful than in vitro fertilization.

Question 12

Canadian children aged 0-14 years who have AIDS are most likely to have contracted the disease during a blood transfusion.

Question 13

Gametes contain 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs.

Question 14

Newborns appear to remember stimuli that they were exposed to prenatally.

Question 15

The advice about alcohol use typically given to pregnant women is "drink in moderation."

Question 16

Artificial insemination is an AHR procedure that is less likely to result in multiple births than other procedures.

Question 17

Due to mounting legal, health, and ethical concerns, Canada has new legislation to regulate most aspects of assisted human reproduction (AHR) and related research, except for donor sperm/egg identity anonymity.

Question 18

Mutagens may cause birth defects because they damage genetic material.

Question 19

If the ovum is not fertilized, it travels down towards the uterus where it disintegrates and is expelled with the menstrual fluid.

Question 20

The stages of human prenatal development are germinal, embryonic, and fetal.

Question 21

An analgesic is administered during labour in order to reduce anxiety.

Question 22

Midwife practice requires a degree from a recognized institution in Canada.

Question 23

A female contributes ________ to the genetics that determine the sex of a zygote, and a male contributes ________ to determine the sex of a zygote.

A) gametes; genes
B) autosomes; sex chromosomes
C) X-chromosomes; X- and Y-chromosomes
D) monogenic alleles; polygenic alleles

Question 24

Naseema and Parmajit are twins. Based upon the incidence of births of twins, the girls are most likely ________ twins.

A) monozygotic
B) polygenetic
C) dizygotic
D) identical

Question 25

A midwife is someone who has had children herself and can therefore help during labour.

Question 26

How many chromosomes are found in the nucleus of the typical human cell?

A) 46
B) 23 pairs
C) 23 pairs and an extra pair of sex-determining chromosomes
D) 46 pairs

Question 27

Fetoscopy is a prenatal screening tool that involves the insertion of a tiny camera into the womb to directly observe fetal development.

Question 28

Which of the following is a correct statement about the events leading up to conception?

A) Conception normally takes place in the uterus.
B) After ovulation, the ovum travels down the uterus to the fallopian tube.
C) Ordinarily, a woman produces two ova per month, one from each of her ovaries.
D) After ejaculation, sperm travel the following path: the vagina, cervix, uterus, and fallopian tube.

Question 29

A zygote that has two X-chromosomes will develop into

A) a boy.
B) a girl.
C) a gamete.
D) twins.

Question 30

Mothers who receive medication during childbirth will typically deliver children who are slightly more sluggish.

Question 31

Mandy and John's baby was born eight weeks early. There is a good chance that their child will suffer from respiratory distress syndrome.

Question 32

Heart rate and respiratory rate are two aspects of a newborn's condition that are observed and scored when administering the Apgar scale.

Question 33

Ultrasound testing is a routine part of prenatal care in Canada because it helps track prenatal development and growth.

Question 34

Any infant who has a weight of 2500 grams or less is considered a low-weight baby.

Question 35

The health of a newborn is usually assessed, in the hospital and/or by midwives, by the use of the Apgar scale.

Question 36

What types of twins are conceived when more than one ovum is produced and where both have been fertilized by separate sperm?

A) fraternal twins
B) identical twins
C) monozygotic twins
D) germinal twins

Question 37

The strength of a newborn's grip is tested and scored in the Apgar scale.

Question 38

At conception, sperm and ova unite to form a new cell called a(n)

A) gamete.
B) zygote.
C) embryo.
D) autosome.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true regarding women over age 35 and multiple births?

A) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if they have taken fertility drugs.
B) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is over age 50.
C) Women over age 35 are more likely to naturally conceive and produce multiple births.
D) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is under age 30.

Question 40

Specialized cells used in reproduction that contain only 23 single chromosomes are called

A) zygotes.
B) gametes.
C) autosomes.
D) XY chromosomes.

Question 41

In the assisted reproduction technique known as ________, donor sperm may be deposited directly into the uterus of a woman who wants to conceive without a male partner.

A) vitrification
B) artificial insemination
C) in vitro fertilization
D) cryopreservation

Question 42

The ________ stage of prenatal development involves refinements of the organ systems, especially the lungs and brain.

A) fetal stage
B) germinal stage
C) embryonic stage
D) teratogenic stage

Question 43

In Karen's pregnancy, the zygote has implanted in her fallopian tube rather than her uterus. What type of pregnancy is this?

A) ectopic
B) proximodal
C) interstitial
D) spontaneous

Question 44

Which of the following is the best example of the cephalocaudal principle of development during the prenatal period?

A) The brain is formed before the reproductive system.
B) The digestive organs are formed before the heart.
C) Differentiation of the gonads and the lobes of the brain occur simultaneously.
D) The spinal cord develops before the arms.

Question 45

The stages of prenatal development, in order, are

A) blastocyst, implantation, and organogenesis.
B) germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
C) zygotic, germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
D) fetal, embryonic, germinal, and zygotic.

Question 46

When an egg and a sperm are combined in a petri dish and the resulting embryo is implanted in a woman's uterus, the assisted reproduction technique is known as

A) cryptopreservation.
B) artificial insemination.
C) cloning.
D) in vitro fertilization.

Question 47

All of the following are assisted human reproduction (AHR) treatments EXCEPT

A) ovulation stimulation drugs.
B) in vitro fertilization.
C) artificial insemination.
D) embryo vitrification.

Question 48

A condition that can cause a baby to grow too rapidly and result in premature labour or an infant that is too large for a vaginal birth is

A) gestational diabetes.
B) toxaemia.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) high blood pressure.

Question 49

Concerns and ethical dilemmas related to assisted human reproductive techniques, practices, and outcomes have prompted Canada to

A) ban multiple egg transfers in IVF treatments.
B) legislate the maintenance of a personal health information registry to provide children of donated sperm and ova with access to their medical histories.
C) require identification of sperm and egg donors and ban anonymity of donors.
D) establish registries for parent and sibling searches by children conceived via donor sperm/eggs.

Question 50

Which of the following is associated with the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) implantation bleeding
B) formation of a mucus "plug" to seal the entrance to the uterus
C) effacement
D) the uterus begins to shift position and put pressure on the woman's bladder

Question 51

Which of the following statements about the placenta is true?

A) The placenta typically is expelled during the third stage of labour.
B) An embryo/fetus is attached to the placenta by the amniotic sac.
C) The placenta is where the mother's and baby's blood are mixed to transfer oxygen, nutrients, and waste products.
D) The placenta forms during organogenesis.

Question 52

All of the following are associated with the third trimester of pregnancy EXCEPT

A) weight gain
B) secretion of colostrum
C) increased risk of spontaneous abortion
D) toxaemia

Question 53

The ________ stage of prenatal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of week 8.

A) amnion
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) fetal

Question 54

Dilara, at six weeks pregnant, is experiencing symptoms of nausea and vomiting. These symptoms are associated with a condition of pregnancy known as __________.

A) toxemia of pregnancy
B) morning sickness
C) gestational diabetes
D) spontaneous abortion

Question 55

After implantation has been completed, an inner membrane creates a sac filled with liquid where the baby will float. This inner membrane is called

A) the blastocyst
B) the amnion
C) the placenta
D) organogenesis

Question 56

Which of the following is a factor associated with multiple births?

A) The presence of hormones in the foods we eat has led to an increase in multiple births.
B) The number of women under the age of 30 who are giving birth has increased in Canada.
C) The prevalent use of artificial insemination has led to an increase in multiple births.
D) The number of women older than age 35 who give birth has increased in Canada.

Question 57

The potential for multiple births increases most with _______ treatments.

A) any assisted human reproduction (AHR) activity
B) in vitro fertilization
C) artificial insemination
D) ovulation stimulation drugs

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about in vitro fertilization?

A) Cryopreservation has been found to have significant negative effects upon the development of infants and children who were cryopreserved as embryos.
B) In Canada, three or more embryos will be simultaneously implanted in a woman's uterus in order to increase the likelihood of at least one live birth.
C) IVF is less successful among older women than among younger women.
D) In vitro fertilization is also known as the "test tube baby" method.

Question 59

Which of the following statements is true regarding women over age 35 and multiple births?

A) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if they have taken fertility drugs.
B) Women over age 35 are more likely to conceive and produce multiple births only if the person who fathered the child is over age 50.
C) Women over age 35 are more likely than younger women to experience difficulty becoming pregnant.
D) Women over age 35 are more likely to produce multiple births only if they have conceived through in vitro fertilization.

Question 60

Which of the following is the best example of the proximodistal principle of development during the prenatal period?

A) The spinal cord develops before the arms.
B) The brain is formed before the reproductive system.
C) Differentiation of the gonads occurs before the eyes are formed.
D) The digestive organs are formed before the heart.

Question 61

An abnormal structure, function, or body metabolism present at birth that results in physical or mental disability or death is called

A) congenital anomaly.
B) atypical anomaly.
C) autosomal disorders.
D) phenylketonuria.

Question 62

A characteristic common to many individuals who have sex chromosome anomalies is

A) obesity.
B) sexual development (puberty) that occurs either very early or very late.
C) learning difficulties.
D) extremely high levels of intelligence.

Question 63

When does a developing infant begin to respond to stimuli such as its mother's voice or light introduced into the uterus?

A) during the fetal stage
B) during the germinal stage
C) during the embryonic stage
D) as soon as the sensory systems are formed in organogenesis

Question 64

Which of the following is an accurate statement about sex differences in prenatal development?

A) Female fetuses appear more sensitive to external stimulation and advance more rapidly in skeletal development.
B) More females than males are conceived.
C) Females are typically longer and weigh more at birth than males.
D) Males are more advanced in all aspects of prenatal development, particularly development of the skeleton.

Question 65

As fetal brains develop, neurons acquire additional structures that enhance their critical role in overall brain functioning. Which of the following is not one of the structures or parts of a developing neuron?

A) axon
B) glial
C) dendrite
D) synapse

Question 66

What is the most common chromosomal anomaly?

A) phenylketonuria
B) Turner's syndrome
C) fragile-X syndrome
D) trisomy 21

Question 67

An autosomal disorder that typically does not show symptoms until adulthood is

A) sickle-cell disease.
B) phenylketonuria.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Tay-Sachs disease.

Question 68

As fetal brain development progresses, neuron cell bodies permanently relocate to designated areas of the brain through a process called

A) neuronal proliferation.
B) neuron migration.
C) neuronal transplanting.
D) neuron resettlement.

Question 69

Which of the following individuals would most likely have the greatest risk for bearing a Down syndrome child?

A) Ms. Branco, age 45
B) Mrs. MacDonald, age 25
C) Ms. Shin, age 18
D) Mrs. Poirier, age 35

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about infants' prenatal behaviour?

A) Infants who were read stories during their final six weeks of prenatal development adapted their sucking patterns to hear familiar stories after they were born.
B) Changes in fetal heart rate suggest that infants can distinguish between familiar and novel stimuli by the thirty-second or thirty-third week of development.
C) The prenatal level of physical activity is an indicator of later activity level (e.g., very active fetuses tend to become very active children).
D) Girls are more physically active than boys during prenatal development.

Question 71

Which of the following is true about teratogens?

A) Maternal age, but not paternal age, is considered a teratogen.
B) Research on Ecstasy, a so-called "club drug," confirms that the drug poses no risks to the fetus.
C) Environmental agents can have direct, nonheritable effects on prenatal development by damaging or disrupting cell development.
D) Teratogens are identified as toxins from the outside rather than internal factors.

Question 72

Caitlin's doctor has told her that her baby has attained viability. What does this mean?

A) The baby doesn't have any more developing left to do.
B) The baby is at the most important stage of development.
C) The baby no longer needs nourishment from the mother.
D) The baby has the ability to live outside the womb.

Question 73

In brain development, neuron proliferation or increases in neuron development and numbers occurs most dramatically during the

A) germinal stage.
B) embryonic stage.
C) fetal stage.
D) post-birth infant stage.

Question 74

People of Eastern European Jewish and Gaspé French Canadian ancestries are most at risk for having offspring with the fatal autosomal degenerative gene disorder called

A) Huntington's disease.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) Cystic fibrosis.
D) Sickle-cell anemia.

Question 75

Diseases/infections such as cancer and chlamydia, and drugs (e.g., tobacco, alcohol) that can cause birth defects are called

A) chromosomal anomalies.
B) teratogens.
C) mutagens.
D) trisomies.

Question 76

________ can be best described as the glue and support system for neurons.

A) Synapses
B) Cell bodies
C) Axons
D) Glial cells

Question 77

______, a rare autosomal genetic disorder caused by an inability to metabolize an essential amino acid, can lead to developmental delay if undetected.

A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Muscular dystrophy

Question 78

Which of the following in utero behaviours signals that synapse formation is occurring in the fetal brain?

A) blinking
B) yawning
C) kicking
D) turning

Question 79

A serious sex-linked genetic disorder where the person's blood lacks the chemical components needed for blood to clot is called

A) hemophilia.
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) Tay-Sachs disease.
D) fragile X syndrome.

Question 80

Movement to the head-down position for birth occurs during which weeks of pregnancy?

A) weeks 17-20
B) weeks 21-24
C) weeks 29-32
D) weeks 33-36