Deck 17: Anxiety Disorders, Autistic Disorder, Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder, and Stress Disorders

Question 1

Although obsessions are seen in schizophrenia and in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), a person with OCD

A) is aware of the obsession and would like it to stop.
B) experiences more intense anxiety than does a schizophrenic.
C) is less likely to recover from the disorder.
D) is more likely be an older male.
E) responds better to haloperidol than does a schizophrenic.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The form of anxiety known as panic disorder

A) occurs twice as often in women as in men.
B) is a disorder of young women, but not young men.
C) rarely appears before the age of 35.
D) is five times more likely to occur in older men than older women.
E) rarely lasts more than a few seconds.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

________ is an example of an obsession.

A) Counting
B) Avoidance
C) Checking
D) Cleaning
E) Worrying about cleanliness

Answer 3

E

Question 4

A key characteristic of anxiety disorders is

A) a high level of dopamine receptors within the nucleus accurnbens.
B) an inability to control euphoria.
C) the presence of unfounded feelings of fear and dread.
D) the absence of REM brain waves during the awake phase.
E) an impulsive desire to mate that occurs at inappropriate times.

Question 5

Which of the following categories of compulsions would be most compatible with a career as an IRS auditor?

A) counting and checking
B) avoidance and denial
C) checking and avoidance
D) cleaning and grooming
E) denial and counting

Question 6

An intense fear of being away from home or other protected places is known as

A) geophobia.
B) acrophobia.
C) spatial anxiety.
D) agoraphobia.
E) claustrophobia.

Question 7

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines for the treatment of anxiety disorders involves

A) 5HT3 receptors.
B) GABAA receptors.
C) nicotinic receptors.
D) 5HT1A receptors.
E) noradrenergic receptors.

Question 8

Recurring attacks of acute and debilitating anxiety are a primary symptom of

A) reactive depression.
B) psychoses.
C) adult-onset depression.
D) panic disorder.
E) mania.

Question 9

It has been estimated that some ________ persons were subjected to the "ice pick" prefrontal lobotomy procedure

A) 250
B) 1,250
C) 2,500
D) 5,000
E) 25,000

Question 10

Moniz suggested that the prefrontal lobotomy procedure might offer a surgical means to

A) eliminate anxiety states.
B) improve cognitive function.
C) attenuate stress-induced headaches.
D) eliminate insomnia.
E) produce weight loss.

Question 11

A person who cannot control his or her anxiety will exhibit

A) an increase in brain GABA activity.
B) a loss of serotonin function within the amygdala and hypothalamus.
C) increased neuronal activity within the cingulated cortex.
D) an increase in neuronal activity within the amygdala .
E) changes in blood flow within the cerebellum.

Question 12

An obsession is a ________, while a compulsion is a ________.

A) delusion; strong emotion
B) form of species-typical behavior; learned behavior
C) thought; behavior
D) learned behavior; delusional thought
E) recurring feeling of anxiety; form of intense euphoria

Question 13

Panic disorder is currently treated using a combination of behavior therapy and

A) MAO inhibitor drugs.
B) tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
C) benzodiazepine drugs.
D) ethyl alcohol.
E) SSRIs.

Question 14

A panic-prone person who ingests a(n) ________ would be expected to show increased anxiety.

A) benzodiazepine agonist
B) tricyclic antidepressant
C) MAO inhibitor
D) combination of ethyl alcohol and barbiturate
E) benzodiazepine antagonist

Question 15

A biological basis for panic disorder is suggested by the finding that

A) identical and fraternal twins are equally likely to develop panic disorder.
B) panic disorder responds well to family psychotherapy.
C) persons who develop panic disorder after lactic acid injections are more likely to have biological relatives with a history of anxiety disorder.
D) haloperidol is an effective antidote for anxiety.
E) panic disorder can be precipitated by the use of alcohol and cocaine.

Question 16

An example of a species-typical behavior for a human is

A) acral licking.
B) combing your hair.
C) a mother using her teeth to move her infant to another room.
D) building a nest to house an infant.
E) ingesting food.

Question 17

The form of anxiety known as panic disorder

A) occurs twice as often in men as in women.
B) is a disorder of young women, but not young men.
C) usually appears in young adulthood.
D) is five times more likely to occur in older men than older women.
E) rarely lasts more than a few seconds.

Question 18

The most effective treatments for panic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder are

A) MAO inhibitor drugs.
B) tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
C) specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
D) ethyl alcohol.
E) cocaine-like drugs.

Question 19

A person who experiences recurrent panic disorder may become even more anxious because

A) of anticipatory anxiety.
B) of embarrassment associated with screaming in public places.
C) of residual long-lasting anxiety from the last panic attack.
D) anxiety symptoms show sensitization with repeated experiences.
E) anxiety causes the release of GABA in brain.

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A) OCD symptoms are dissimilar across different cultures.
B) Family studies suggest an association between OCD and Parkinson's syndrome.
C) PET scans have shown decreased activity in the frontal lobes of OCD patients.
D) OCD is much more common in women than in men.
E) OCD is characterized by counting, checking, and cleaning rituals.

Question 21

Assume that the delay of reinforcement gradient is steeper in children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity (ADHD). Which of the following best explains the symptoms of ADHD?

A) Classroom behaviors have a short interval between behavior and reinforcement.
B) ADHD children are less sensitive to rewards, regardless of the interval between response and reinforcement.
C) Serotonin agonists alter the gradient of reinforcement.
D) Classroom behaviors have a long interval between behavior and reinforcement.
E) Reinforcements that follow a short delay are less effective in ADHD children.

Question 22

The ________ pathway from the basal ganglia to the cortex is ________ for motor function.

A) indirect; excitatory
B) direct; inhibitory
C) corticofugal; excitatory
D) direct; excitatory
E) hyperdirect; excitatory

Question 23

With regard to attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD),

A) ADHD is associated with high self-esteem.
B) boys are ten times less likely to be classified as ADHD than are girls.
C) the disorder interferes with learning.
D) ADHD usually wanes in adulthood.
E) ADHD is the least common childhood behavior disorder.

Question 24

Which of the following is the strongest support for a genetic influence on autism?

A) The concordance rate for autism is 70 percent in fraternal twins and 0 percent in identical twins.
B) The concordance rate for autism is 5 percent in fraternal twins and 70 percent in identical twins.
C) Siblings of autistic children are less likely to develop autism than the normal population.
D) Parents of autistic children are usually autistic.
E) Autism is effectively treated using serotonin agonist drugs.

Question 25

Regarding neurosurgery and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD),

A) ablation of the frontal cortex is most likely to produce improvement in OCD symptoms.
B) ablation of the cingulum bundle is most likely to produce negative cognitive changes in OCD patients.
C) neurosurgery works best when followed by drug treatment.
D) ablation of the cingulum bundle can lead to some improvement in OCD symptoms in about half of patients.
E) neurosurgery is the most common form of treatment for OCD.

Question 26

The childhood disorder known as autism

A) can be effectively treated with serotonin agonist drugs.
B) is characterized by muscular and vocal tics.
C) includes affective, cognitive, and behavioral abnormalities.
D) affects 2% of the population.
E) typically wanes during the early adult years.

Question 27

The relatively poor ability of autistic persons to understand the emotional facial expressions of other persons is likely due to

A) overactivation of the fusiform face area.
B) visual acuity problems.
C) impaired activation of the fusiform face area.
D) enhanced activity within the orbitofrontal cortex.
E) an infection involving the corpus callosum.

Question 28

The specific compulsion known as trichotillomania

A) is most common in males.
B) involves hair pulling.
C) can be treated by lithium.
D) involves damage to the cingulum.
E) occurs in about 5% of the population.

Question 29

Symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children are a concern because

A) ADHD interferes with learning in school.
B) their behavior is irritating to teachers.
C) excessive fidgeting leads to extreme weight loss.
D) ADHD children are prone to develop cocaine abuse as adults.
E) ADHD in childhood is associated with depression in adulthood.

Question 30

A persistent difficulty in concentrating, remaining still, and working on a task are the key characteristics of

A) mania.
B) autism.
C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
D) psychostimulant abuse.
E) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 31

A key characteristic of autistic disorder involves

A) highly developed social skills.
B) normal imaginative ability.
C) normal interests and behaviors.
D) an inability to relate to point of view taken by others.

Question 32

________ is a biological factor associated with autism.

A) Maternal cocaine use
B) German measles during pregnancy
C) Paternal syphilis
D) Use of antipsychotic meds during the pregnancy
E) Family environment

Question 33

A person showing muscular and vocal tics, squatting, grunting, and vulgar speech is most likely to have

A) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B) Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
C) Tourette's syndrome.
D) Clint Eastwood syndrome.
E) Korsakoff's disease.

Question 34

The expected incidence of autism in the general population is ________ in ________ people.

A) 1; 1,000
B) 13; 10,000
C) 1; 10,000
D) 50; 1,000
E) 100; 10,000

Question 35

The symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder that occur after an infection are likely to be the result of autoimmune-associated damage to the

A) hypothalamus.
B) basal ganglia.
C) cerebellum.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) cingulate sulcus.

Question 36

The most effective drug treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder involves the administration of

A) fluvoxamine and clomipramine.
B) serotonin antagonists.
C) benzodiazepines.
D) GABA antagonists
E) alcohol.

Question 37

A general finding is that the brains of autistic children exhibit

A) loss of cells within the cerebral cortex.
B) enlarged brain size.
C) fewer axons within the corpus callosum.
D) reduced volume of the hippocampus.
E) decreased numbers of gyri within the frontal lobes.

Question 38

Drugs that effectively reduce obsessions in OCD are

A) reverse agonists for GABA.
B) opiate antagonists.
C) GABA agonists.
D) serotonin agonists.
E) serotonin antagonists.

Question 39

The person in the case described by Solyom et al. (1987) was able to successfully treat his compulsions by

A) taking antibiotics, which eliminated a brain infection.
B) a bar fight resulting in damage to his cingulum bundle.
C) damaging his own frontal cortex by firing a bullet into his brain.
D) ingesting herbal supplements that destroy the caudate nucleus.
E) moving to a country in which his compulsions were socially acceptable.

Question 40

The most effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is

A) the use of serotonin agonist drugs.
B) self-medication using alcohol and cocaine.
C) neurosurgery.
D) long-term psychotherapy.
E) antibiotic drug therapy.

Question 41

The general function of dopamine transporters is to

A) speed nerve cell conduction velocity.
B) terminate the effect of dopamine within the synapse.
C) push dopamine molecules into the synapse.
D) assist in the binding to and activation of postsynaptic receptors.
E) move dopamine vesicles from the soma to the axon terminal.

Question 42

With regard to glucocorticoids,

A) an inability to secrete glucocorticoids results in greater reactivity/toxicity to stressors.
B) secretion of glucocorticoids is controlled by the central nucleus of the amygdala.
C) these act to increase levels of hormones that affect sexual function.
D) cortisol is a glucocorticoid released by the anterior pituitary gland.
E) receptors for the glucocorticoids are mostly found within limbic system neurons.

Question 43

Drugs that block the dopamine transporter would be expected to

A) decrease synaptic levels of dopamine.
B) impair dopamine neurotransmission.
C) reduce the symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
D) reduce the likelihood of activation of other neurons.
E) aggravate the behavioral symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Question 44

During a stress response,

A) the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is activated.
B) norepinephrine is released as a neurotransmitter in the brain.
C) the adrenal gland releases steroid hormones.
D) an increased output of the heart increases blood flow to the muscles.
E) the adrenal glands secrete androgens.

Question 45

The capacity of stress to suppress the immune response is mediated by the secretion of

A) immunoglobulins.
B) cytokines.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) norepinephrine.
E) B-lymphocytes.

Question 46

A physiological reaction produced in the body by the perception of aversive or threatening events is referred to as

A) a stressor.
B) a fight-or-flight response.
C) stressful.
D) an immune response.
E) stress.

Question 47

The observation that ________ is an effective treatment for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) suggests that ADHD results from ________.

A) fluoxetine; a deficit in serotonin transmission
B) haloperidol; overstimulation of dopamine transmission
C) methylphenidate; understimulation of dopamine transmission
D) fenfluramine; overstimulation of serotonin transmission
E) methylphenidate; overstimulation of dopamine transmission

Question 48

Secretion of glucocorticoids results in

A) decreased blood flow.
B) decreased conversion of protein into glucose.
C) greater availability of fatty acids as sources of energy.
D) increased plasma levels of sex steroid hormones.
E) reduced blood pressure.

Question 49

Neurons localized within the ________ control the secretion of glucocorticoids.

A) posterior pituitary
B) preoptic hypothalamus
C) central nucleus of the amygdala
D) reticular activating system
E) paraventricular hypothalamic nucleus (PVN)

Question 50

Prolonged stress can result in cardiovascular disease because

A) stress-related hormones are toxic for cardiac cells.
B) stress can increase blood pressure.
C) of prolonged activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) stress increases consumption of fatty foods that in turn clog the arteries.
E) activation of the sympathetic nervous system produces more wear and tear on the cardiovascular system.

Question 51

Long-term exposure to steroids can result in

A) reduced blood pressure.
B) activation of the immune system.
C) a form of psychosis as well as symptoms of anxiety.
D) an improved rate of wound healing.
E) tolerance to infections.

Question 52

The most consistent abnormality noted in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder brains is

A) a loss of myelin in cells within the spinal cord.
B) a decreased number of cells within the basal ganglia.
C) an increase in the number of cells within the corpus callosum.
D) reduced activation of the medial prefrontal cortex.
E) a 5% increase in total brain volume.

Question 53

A situation or stimulus in the environment that is perceived as being threatening or aversive is deemed to be

A) a stressor.
B) a fight-or-flight response.
C) stressful.
D) an immune response.
E) stress.

Question 54

The correct pathway for the secretion of glucocorticoids involves:

A) central nucleus of the amygdala -> activates ACTH secretion from anterior pituitary - > PVN activation -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal medulla
B) CRH secretion within the PVN -> activates ACTH release from anterior pituitary - > glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
C) PVN activation -> CRH secretion in median eminence -> ACTH secretion from anterior pituitary - > glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
D) ACTH secretion from the PVN -> CRH release from the posterior pituitary -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
E) activation of the central nucleus of the amygdala -> sympathetic activation -> adrenaline release -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex

Question 55

A person who has been subjected to long-term stress

A) is more likely to suffer poorer health later in life.
B) will show immediate health effects, but recover quickly.
C) will recover gradually, but exhibit no lasting effects of the stress.
D) may be more likely to have high blood pressure, but not ulcers.
E) is more likely to show avoidance of stress in the future.

Question 56

Methylphenidates stimulate release of dopamine and ________ in the prefrontal cortex to ameliorate the symptoms of ADHD.

A) glycine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) serotonin
E) GABA

Question 57

The most common treatment for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder involves

A) daily administration of methylphenidate.
B) daily administration of cocaine.
C) daily administration of Prozac.
D) ablation of the cingulum bundle.
E) drugs that are dopamine antagonists.

Question 58

Hans Selye argued that ill health noted after stress exposure reflects

A) decreased blood pressure.
B) overstimulation of growth.
C) the prolonged secretion of glucocorticoids.
D) the activation of apoptosis in brain by stress exposure.
E) the prolonged secretion of norepinephrine and epinephrine.

Question 59

Glucocorticoid receptors

A) are found in highest concentration in the adrenal glands.
B) are found within almost every cell of the body.
C) disappear following adrenalectomy.
D) gradually deteriorate with age.
E) are primarily localized in the brainstem and the spinal cord.

Question 60

Injection of CRH into the brain would be expected to result in

A) a profound state of relaxation.
B) increased beard growth in men.
C) impaired fear responses.
D) behavioral signs of anxiety.
E) activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

Question 61

The key role of cytokines in immune function is to

A) stimulate cell division.
B) act as the body's first defense against malignant tumors.
C) induce production of cells in the thymus.
D) bind to antigens on the membrane of a foreign cell.
E) induce the release of CRF from the PVN.

Question 62

The deleterious effect of stress on memory involves the action of glucocorticoid release to

A) release acetylcholine in the hippocampus.
B) damage cells within field CA1 of the hippocampus.
C) increase the entry of glucose into neurons.
D) increase the reuptake of glutamate into nerve cells.
E) directly induce apoptosis.

Question 63

Humans exposed to the stress of ________ show evidence of brain degeneration in CT scans.

A) life
B) torture
C) adolescence
D) caregiving
E) motherhood

Question 64

________ is a component of the immune system that is developed within bone marrow.

A) antigen
B) pathogen
C) B-lymphocyte
D) alpha-lymphocyte
E) T-lymphocyte

Question 65

The key role of immunoglobulins in immune function is to

A) stimulate cell division.
B) act as the body's first defense against malignant tumors.
C) induce production of cells in the thymus.
D) bind to antigens on the membrane of a foreign cell.
E) induce the release of CRF from the PVN.

Question 66

Studies of genocide survivors in Rwanda indicate that ________ may play a role in the development of posttraumatic stress disorder.

A) low levels of CRH
B) high levels of cortisol
C) impaired immune function
D) high levels of CRH
E) slower destruction of catecholamines

Question 67

________ is an antibody released by B-lymphocytes that binds with antigens and helps destroy invading microorganisms.

A) immunoglobulin
B) cytokine
C) T-lymphocyte
D) interleukin-1 cell
E) immunocyte

Question 68

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing PTSD after a traumatic experience?

A) being born of a schizophrenic mother.
B) exposure to more than one trauma
C) prolonged cocaine use
D) strong social support
E) having a college education

Question 69

Which of the following persons would be expected to take more time to heal from a cut on his or her hand?

A) a mother who just went on vacation
B) the son of an air traffic controller
C) the spouse of an Alzheimer's patient
D) the grandchild of a concentration camp survivor
E) a child who just returned to fourth grade

Question 70

The immune system develops ________ through exposure to ________.

A) interferon; antibodies
B) antigens; antibodies
C) antibodies; B-lymphocytes
D) antibodies; antigens
E) infections; antibodies

Question 71

Which of the following is true of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Women are more likely than men to develop PTSD.
B) PTSD is a problem noted after middle age.
C) Women are more likely than men to experience severe trauma.
D) PTSD is an environmental disorder with no genetic roots.
E) PTSD results in poor psychological functioning without problems in physical health.

Question 72

________ refers to the study of the interactions among the nervous system, the immune system, and environmental stimuli.

A) Biopsychology
B) Environmental psychotoxicology
C) Psychoneuroimmunology
D) Autoimmunology
E) Immunopsychology

Question 73

The capacity of glucocorticoids to impair specific immune responses involves

A) activation of the paraventricular hypotalamus by ACTH.
B) interference with B-lymphocyte function.
C) increased release of the interleukins.
D) interference with cytokine stimulation of other white blood cells.
E) interference with T-lymphocyte function.

Question 74

The Vietnam-era twin study suggests that a person with a smaller ________ was more likely to develop PTSD after a combat experience.

A) frontal cortex
B) caudate nucleus
C) amygdala
D) corpus callosum
E) hippocampus

Question 75

The capacity of stress to ________ would predispose an organism to develop an infectious illness.

A) inhibit the immune system
B) induce high blood pressure
C) inhibit growth
D) inhibit the inflammatory response
E) inhibit the secretion of steroid sex hormones

Question 76

Intense feelings of fear, helplessness, or horror are key symptoms of

A) psychosis.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) generalized anxiety.
D) "flashbacks."
E) neurotic depression.

Question 77

With regard to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD),

A) PTSD is an environmental disorder with no genetic roots.
B) PTSD is a problem noted after middle age.
C) women are more likely than men to experience severe trauma.
D) women are more likely than men to develop PTSD.
E) PTSD results in poor psychological functioning without problems in physical health.

Question 78

An example of an adverse stress effect on immune function is when

A) a person who cares for a relative with Alzheimer's disease produces more antibodies to a bacterial agent.
B) fighter pilots show higher immune responses after successive missions.
C) husbands whose wives died from breast cancer show reduced immune response.
D) antibody production is stimulated by release of glucocorticoids.
E) glucocorticoid release is inhibited by chronic stress.

Question 79

A person with ________ who is exposed to a trauma is more likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder.

A) a past history of trauma
B) a high educational level
C) a large hippocampus
D) high plasma cortisol levels
E) no combat experience

Question 80

The primary means by which the immune system defends against invading organisms is to

A) use immune-generated cells to indirectly kill a foreign cell.
B) release corticosterone.
C) generate antigens.
D) generate antibodies that bind to and kill a foreign cell.
E) release CRH into the hypothalamus.