Deck 17: Anxiety Disorders, Autistic Disorder, attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder, and Stress Disorders

Question 1

The impact of allostatic load is demonstrated by which phenomenon?

A) Couples who displayed high levels of hostile behavior had wounds that healed more slowly than couples that displayed more friendly behaviors.
B) Caregivers of family members with Alzheimer's disease had wounds that healed quicker than non-caregivers.
C) Wounds heal faster during final exams as compared to summer vacation.
D) High HPA axis activity is linked to greater gains in healing.
E) Low HPA axis activity is linked to slower gains in healing.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The capacity of stress to ________ would predispose an organism to develop an infectious illness.

A) inhibit the immune system
B) induce high blood pressure
C) inhibit growth
D) inhibit the inflammatory response
E) inhibit the secretion of steroid sex hormones

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The correct pathway for the secretion of glucocorticoids involves:

A) central nucleus of the amygdala -> activates ACTH secretion from anterior pituitary -> PVN activation -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal medulla
B) CRH secretion within the PVN -> activates ACTH release from anterior pituitary -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
C) PVN activation -> CRH secretion in median eminence -> ACTH secretion from anterior pituitary -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
D) ACTH secretion from the PVN -> CRH release from the posterior pituitary -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
E) activation of the central nucleus of the amygdala -> sympathetic activation -> adrenaline release -> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A physiological reaction produced in the body by the perception of aversive or threatening events is referred to as

A) a stressor.
B) a fight-or-flight response.
C) stressful.
D) an immune response.
E) stress.

Question 5

Neurons localized within the ________ control the secretion of glucocorticoids.

A) posterior pituitary
B) preoptic hypothalamus
C) central nucleus of the amygdala
D) reticular activating system
E) paraventricular hypothalamic nucleus (PVN)

Question 6

Prolonged stress can result in cardiovascular disease because

A) stress-related hormones are toxic for cardiac cells.
B) stress can increase blood pressure.
C) of prolonged activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) stress increases consumption of fatty foods that in turn clog the arteries.
E) activation of the sympathetic nervous system produces more wear and tear on the cardiovascular system.

Question 7

Injection of corticotropin-releasing factor into the ventricles of rats results in

A) a decreased startle response when presented with loud noise.
B) increased stamina in anxiety-provoking tasks.
C) improved learning of a conditioned fear response.
D) impaired learning of a conditioned fear response.
E) increased amounts of time spent in open areas.

Question 8

The capacity of stress to suppress the immune response is mediated by the secretion of

A) immunoglobulins.
B) cytokines.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) norepinephrine.
E) B-lymphocytes.

Question 9

Long-term exposure to steroids can result in

A) reduced blood pressure.
B) activation of the immune system.
C) a form of psychosis as well as symptoms of anxiety.
D) an improved rate of wound healing.
E) tolerance to infections.

Question 10

Hans Selye argued that ill health noted after stress exposure reflects

A) decreased blood pressure.
B) overstimulation of growth.
C) the prolonged secretion of glucocorticoids.
D) the activation of apoptosis in brain by stress exposure.
E) the prolonged secretion of norepinephrine and epinephrine.

Question 11

During a stress response,

A) the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is activated.
B) norepinephrine is released as a neurotransmitter in the brain.
C) the adrenal gland releases steroid hormones.
D) an increased output of the heart increases blood flow to the muscles.
E) the adrenal glands secrete androgens.

Question 12

Injection of CRH into the brain would be expected to result in

A) a profound state of relaxation.
B) increased beard growth in men.
C) impaired fear responses.
D) behavioral signs of anxiety.
E) activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

Question 13

The hypothalamus releases ___________, the pituitary releases __________, and the adrenals release ___________________ to make up the steps of action in the HPA axis.

A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone; glucocorticoids
B) glucocorticoids; corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone; glucocorticoids
D) corticotropin-releasing hormone; glucocorticoids; adrenocorticotropic hormone
E) adrenocorticotropic hormone; glucocorticoids; corticotropin-releasing hormone

Question 14

Glucocorticoid receptors

A) are found in highest concentration in the adrenal glands.
B) are found within almost every cell of the body.
C) disappear following adrenalectomy.
D) gradually deteriorate with age.
E) are primarily localized in the brainstem and the spinal cord.

Question 15

In a response to a stressful situation, the ___________ stimulates release of catecholamines from the _____________.

A) sympathetic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal medulla
B) sympathetic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal cortex
C) hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis; adrenal medulla
D) hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis; adrenal cortex
E) hypothalamic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal cortex

Question 16

With regard to glucocorticoids,

A) an inability to secrete glucocorticoids results in greater reactivity/toxicity to stressors.
B) secretion of glucocorticoids is controlled by the central nucleus of the amygdala.
C) these act to increase levels of hormones that affect sexual function.
D) cortisol is a glucocorticoid released by the anterior pituitary gland.
E) receptors for the glucocorticoids are mostly found within limbic system neurons.

Question 17

A person who has been subjected to long-term stress

A) is more likely to suffer poorer health later in life.
B) will show immediate health effects, but recover quickly.
C) will recover gradually, but exhibit no lasting effects of the stress.
D) may be more likely to have high blood pressure, but not ulcers.
E) is more likely to show avoidance of stress in the future.

Question 18

In a response to a stressful situation, the ___________ stimulates release of cortisol from the _____________.

A) sympathetic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal medulla
B) sympathetic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal cortex
C) hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis; adrenal medulla
D) hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis; adrenal cortex
E) hypothalamic adrenal-medullary system; adrenal cortex

Question 19

Another name for CRH is ________ factor.

A) insulin-releasing
B) glucagon-releasing
C) cortisol-releasing
D) estrogen-releasing
E) corticotropin-releasing

Question 20

Which of the following persons would be expected to take more time to heal from a cut on his or her hand?

A) a mother who just went on vacation
B) the son of an air traffic controller
C) the spouse of an Alzheimer's patient
D) the grandchild of a concentration camp survivor
E) a child who just returned to fourth grade

Question 21

The inhibitory action of stress on immune function is mostly due to

A) inactivation of the PVN.
B) impaired secretion of CRH.
C) increased secretion of glucocorticoids.
D) inactivation of the pituitary.
E) increased formation of immunoglobulins.

Question 22

Shared symptoms between depression and PTSD include

A) memory impairments.
B) flashbacks of trauma.
C) avoidance of stimuli associated with trauma.
D) reduced interest or participation in significant activities.
E) psychosis.

Question 23

The immune system develops ________ through exposure to ________.

A) interferon; antibodies
B) antigens; antibodies
C) antibodies; B-lymphocytes
D) antibodies; antigens
E) infections; antibodies

Question 24

The deleterious effect of stress on memory involves the action of glucocorticoid release to

A) release acetylcholine in the hippocampus.
B) damage cells within field CA1 of the hippocampus.
C) increase the entry of glucose into neurons.
D) increase the reuptake of glutamate into nerve cells.
E) directly induce apoptosis.

Question 25

The key role of immunoglobulins in immune function is to

A) stimulate cell division.
B) act as the body's first defense against malignant tumors.
C) induce production of cells in the thymus.
D) bind to antigens on the membrane of a foreign cell.
E) induce the release of CRF from the PVN.

Question 26

Which of the following is true of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Women are more likely than men to develop PTSD.
B) PTSD is a problem noted after middle age.
C) Women are more likely than men to experience severe trauma.
D) PTSD is an environmental disorder with no genetic roots.
E) PTSD results in poor psychological functioning without problems in physical health.

Question 27

The primary means by which the immune system defends against invading organisms is to

A) use immune-generated cells to indirectly kill a foreign cell.
B) release corticosterone.
C) generate antigens.
D) generate antibodies that bind to and kill a foreign cell.
E) release CRH into the hypothalamus.

Question 28

________ refers to the study of the interactions among the nervous system, the immune system, and environmental stimuli.

A) Biopsychology
B) Environmental psychotoxicology
C) Psychoneuroimmunology
D) Autoimmunology
E) Immunopsychology

Question 29

Which statement is most accurate regarding symptoms of PTSD?

A) PTSD is a form of psychosis.
B) Recollections and flashbacks can help the individual face the trauma.
C) Individuals with PTSD often have undisturbed sleep patterns.
D) The startle response of individuals with PTSD is often unaffected.
E) Intense psychological distress is one of the primary symptoms.

Question 30

Elderly people with elevated blood levels of _____________ learned a maze ________ than did those with normal levels.

A) glucocorticoids; more slowly
B) glucocorticoids; more quickly
C) thyroxine; more slowly
D) thyroxine; more quickly
E) testosterone; more slowly

Question 31

Chemically mediated immune reactions are produced by ________________ and cell-mediated immune reactions are produced by _________________.

A) B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
B) T-lymphocytes; B-lymphocytes
C) immunoglobulins; T-lymphocytes
D) B-lymphocytes; immunoglobulins
E) cytokines; immunoglobulins

Question 32

________ is an antibody released by B-lymphocytes that binds with antigens and helps destroy invading microorganisms.

A) immunoglobulin
B) cytokine
C) T-lymphocyte
D) interleukin-1 cell
E) immunocyte

Question 33

The capacity of glucocorticoids to impair specific immune responses involves

A) activation of the paraventricular hypotalamus by ACTH.
B) interference with B-lymphocyte function.
C) increased release of the interleukins.
D) interference with cytokine stimulation of other white blood cells.
E) interference with T-lymphocyte function.

Question 34

The presence of various neuroprotective hormones, such as ____________, can promote resilience in the event of stress.

A) DHEA and thyroxine
B) thyroxine and cortisol
C) DHEA and testosterone
D) neuropeptide Y and cortisol
E) thyroxine and neuropeptide Y

Question 35

Prenatal stress can cause long-lasting malfunctions in learning and memory by interfering with normal development of the

A) cerebral cortex.
B) hippocampus.
C) amygdala.
D) thalamus.
E) hypothalamus.

Question 36

An example of an adverse stress effect on immune function is when

A) a person who cares for a relative with Alzheimer's disease produces more antibodies to a bacterial agent.
B) fighter pilots show higher immune responses after successive missions.
C) husbands whose wives died from breast cancer show reduced immune response.
D) antibody production is stimulated by release of glucocorticoids.
E) glucocorticoid release is inhibited by chronic stress.

Question 37

Humans exposed to the stress of ________ show evidence of brain degeneration in CT scans.

A) life
B) torture
C) adolescence
D) caregiving
E) motherhood

Question 38

________ is a component of the immune system that is developed within bone marrow.

A) antigen
B) pathogen
C) B-lymphocyte
D) alpha-lymphocyte
E) T-lymphocyte

Question 39

The key role of cytokines in immune function is to

A) stimulate cell division.
B) act as the body's first defense against malignant tumors.
C) induce production of cells in the thymus.
D) bind to antigens on the membrane of a foreign cell.
E) induce the release of CRF from the PVN.

Question 40

The first defense within the nose, mouth, throat, and lungs against infectious microbes is

A) the immunoglobulin IgA.
B) CRH.
C) cortisol.
D) epinephrine.
E) the release of antigens.

Question 41

The form of anxiety known as panic disorder

A) occurs twice as often in women as in men.
B) is a disorder of young women, but not young men.
C) rarely appears before the age of 35.
D) is five times more likely to occur in older men than older women.
E) rarely lasts more than a few seconds.

Question 42

With regard to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD),

A) PTSD is an environmental disorder with no genetic roots.
B) PTSD is a problem noted after middle age.
C) women are more likely than men to experience severe trauma.
D) women are more likely than men to develop PTSD.
E) PTSD results in poor psychological functioning without problems in physical health.

Question 43

Which statement is most accurate about treatment of PTSD?

A) Cognitive behavior therapy, group therapy, and antidepressants are the most common treatments.
B) TMS is largely ineffective.
C) SSRIs can worsen symptoms.
D) Psychotherapy increases amygdala activity and decreases prefrontal cortex activity.
E) Re-exposure to the traumatic event helps individuals overcome PTSD.

Question 44

The most common psychiatric disorder is

A) schizophrenia.
B) anxiety disorder.
C) mood disorder.
D) post-traumatic stress disorder.
E) obsessive compulsive disorder.

Question 45

An intense fear of being away from home or other protected places is known as

A) geophobia.
B) acrophobia.
C) spatial anxiety.
D) agoraphobia.
E) claustrophobia.

Question 46

Which person is more likely to experience traumatic events and, as a result, experience PTSD?

A) Joel, a Type-B personality who isn't deadline driven and enjoys music
B) John, an anxious and easily angered student
C) Peter, an irritable blue collar worker who enjoys driving fast
D) Thomas, a quiet, easy mannered manager whose idea of "risky" includes swimming in the local lake
E) Michael, an online video gamer who stays in nightly

Question 47

A person who experiences recurrent panic disorder may become even more anxious because

A) of anticipatory anxiety.
B) of embarrassment associated with screaming in public places.
C) of residual long-lasting anxiety from the last panic attack.
D) anxiety symptoms show sensitization with repeated experiences.
E) anxiety causes the release of GABA in brain.

Question 48

An obsession is a ________, while a compulsion is a ________.

A) delusion; strong emotion
B) form of species-typical behavior; learned behavior
C) thought; behavior
D) learned behavior; delusional thought
E) recurring feeling of anxiety; form of intense euphoria

Question 49

Although obsessions are seen in schizophrenia and in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), a person with OCD

A) is aware of the obsession and would like it to stop.
B) experiences more intense anxiety than does a schizophrenic.
C) is less likely to recover from the disorder.
D) is more likely be an older male.
E) responds better to haloperidol than does a schizophrenic.

Question 50

Individuals with PTSD were shown pictures of faces with fearful expressions. In this study, the symptoms of the people with PTSD were ????????_________________ correlated with the activation of the amygdala and ____________ correlated with the activation of the medial prefrontal cortex.

A) positively; negatively
B) negatively; positively
C) positively; positively
D) positively; not
E) not; negatively

Question 51

A person with ________ who is exposed to a trauma is more likely to develop posttraumatic stress disorder.

A) a past history of trauma
B) a high educational level
C) a large hippocampus
D) high plasma cortisol levels
E) no combat experience

Question 52

A biological basis for panic disorder is suggested by the finding that

A) identical and fraternal twins are equally likely to develop panic disorder.
B) panic disorder responds well to family psychotherapy.
C) persons who develop panic disorder after lactic acid injections are more likely to have biological relatives with a history of anxiety disorder.
D) haloperidol is an effective antidote for anxiety.
E) panic disorder can be precipitated by the use of alcohol and cocaine.

Question 53

Panic disorder is currently treated using a combination of behavior therapy and

A) MAO inhibitor drugs.
B) tricyclic antidepressant drugs.
C) benzodiazepine drugs.
D) ethyl alcohol.
E) SSRIs.

Question 54

Functional imaging studies indicate that panic attack is accompanied by activation of the

A) hippocampus.
B) thalamus.
C) cingulated cortex.
D) amygdala.
E) corpus callosum.

Question 55

Which statement is most accurate with regard to panic disorder?

A) Prevalence rates are higher in Latin American countries.
B) Men are more likely to experience panic disorder.
C) Panic attacks are often confused with heart attacks.
D) Prevalence in the U.S. is approximately 10%.
E) Panic disorder is typically diagnosed in childhood.

Question 56

The Vietnam-era twin study suggests that a person with a smaller ________ was more likely to develop PTSD after a combat experience.

A) frontal cortex
B) caudate nucleus
C) amygdala
D) corpus callosum
E) hippocampus

Question 57

A problem with using benzodiazepine drugs as long-term anxiety treatment is that these drugs

A) induce seizures.
B) cause sedation.
C) make a person more prone to drink alcohol.
D) result in sensitization.
E) suppress REM sleep.

Question 58

A panic-prone person who ingests a(n) ________ would be expected to show increased anxiety.

A) benzodiazepine agonist
B) tricyclic antidepressant
C) MAO inhibitor
D) combination of ethyl alcohol and barbiturate
E) benzodiazepine antagonist

Question 59

The form of anxiety known as panic disorder

A) occurs twice as often in men as in women.
B) is a disorder of young women, but not young men.
C) usually appears in young adulthood.
D) is five times more likely to occur in older men than older women.
E) rarely lasts more than a few seconds.

Question 60

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines for the treatment of anxiety disorders involves

A) 5HT3 receptors.
B) GABA_A receptors.
C) nicotinic receptors.
D) 5HT1A receptors.
E) noradrenergic receptors.

Question 61

The ________ pathway from the basal ganglia to the cortex is ________ for motor function.

A) indirect; excitatory
B) direct; inhibitory
C) corticofugal; excitatory
D) direct; excitatory
E) hyperdirect; excitatory

Question 62

Regarding neurosurgery and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD),

A) ablation of the frontal cortex is most likely to produce improvement in OCD symptoms.
B) ablation of the cingulum bundle is most likely to produce negative cognitive changes in OCD patients.
C) neurosurgery works best when followed by drug treatment.
D) ablation of the cingulum bundle can lead to some improvement in OCD symptoms in about half of patients.
E) neurosurgery is the most common form of treatment for OCD.

Question 63

The most effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is

A) the use of serotonin agonist drugs.
B) self-medication using alcohol and cocaine.
C) neurosurgery.
D) long-term psychotherapy.
E) antibiotic drug therapy.

Question 64

_______ is a pervasive developmental disorder that involves an arrest of brain development during infancy.

A) Social phobia
B) Asperger's syndrome
C) Childhood disintegrative disorder
D) Rett's disorder
E) Obsessive compulsive disorder

Question 65

The specific compulsion known as trichotillomania

A) is most common in males.
B) involves hair pulling.
C) can be treated by lithium.
D) involves damage to the cingulum.
E) occurs in about 5% of the population.

Question 66

Drugs that effectively reduce obsessions in OCD are

A) reverse agonists for GABA.
B) opiate antagonists.
C) GABA agonists.
D) serotonin agonists.
E) serotonin antagonists.

Question 67

________ is a biological factor associated with autism.

A) Maternal cocaine use
B) German measles during pregnancy
C) Paternal syphilis
D) Use of antipsychotic meds during the pregnancy
E) Family environment

Question 68

The childhood disorder known as autism

A) can be effectively treated with serotonin agonist drugs.
B) is characterized by muscular and vocal tics.
C) includes affective, cognitive, and behavioral abnormalities.
D) affects 2% of the population.
E) typically wanes during the early adult years.

Question 69

Which of the following is the strongest support for a genetic influence on autism?

A) The concordance rate for autism is 70 percent in fraternal twins and 0 percent in identical twins.
B) The concordance rate for autism is 5 percent in fraternal twins and 70 percent in identical twins.
C) Siblings of autistic children are less likely to develop autism than the normal population.
D) Parents of autistic children are usually autistic.
E) Autism is effectively treated using serotonin agonist drugs.

Question 70

Three drugs are regularly used to treat the symptoms of OCD: clomipramine, fluoxetine, and fluvoxamine. These drugs are

A) dopamine agonists.
B) serotonin agonists.
C) norepinephrine antagonists.
D) dopamine antagonists.
E) serotonin antagonists.

Question 71

A person showing muscular and vocal tics, squatting, grunting, and vulgar speech is most likely to have

A) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B) Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
C) Tourette's syndrome.
D) Clint Eastwood syndrome.
E) Korsakoff's disease.

Question 72

A key characteristic of autistic disorder involves

A) highly developed social skills.
B) normal imaginative ability.
C) normal interests and behaviors.
D) an inability to relate to point of view taken by others.
E) superior athletic ability.

Question 73

Which statement is most accurate regarding obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A) Compulsions are usually mild and do not interfere with daily life.
B) Individuals with OCD do not realize they have irrational obsessions.
C) Obsessions are never comorbid with other disorders.
D) OCD is more similar to hoarding and trichotillomania than anxiety disorders.
E) Therapy is successful in all cases of OCD.

Question 74

The specific compulsion known as ________ involves nail biting.

A) somatophagia
B) Kluver-Bucy syndrome
C) onychophagia
D) acral lick dermatitis
E) trichotillomania

Question 75

Prevalence of autism spectrum disorders is approximately _______ in the United States.

A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 5%
E) 8%

Question 76

Deep brain stimulation of the ________ is partially effective in treating ________.

A) cerebellum; Parkinson's disease
B) direct pathway; OCD
C) subthalamic nucleus; OCD
D) orbiofrontal cortex; panic disorder
E) amygdala; Parkinson's disease

Question 77

Which of the following categories of compulsions would be most compatible with a career as an IRS auditor?

A) counting and checking
B) avoidance and denial
C) checking and avoidance
D) cleaning and grooming
E) denial and counting

Question 78

Tierra is fearful of catching an illness. She envisions germs covering every surface when she ventures outside of her immaculately kept apartment. She wears gloves and refuses to touch other individuals or to allow them to touch her. Her preoccupation with germs would be considered a(n)

A) compulsion.
B) obsession.
C) fixation.
D) mania.
E) occupation.

Question 79

The symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder that occur after an infection are likely to be the result of autoimmune-associated damage to the

A) hypothalamus.
B) basal ganglia.
C) cerebellum.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) cingulate sulcus.

Question 80

An example of a species-typical behavior for a human is

A) acral licking.
B) combing your hair.
C) a mother using her teeth to move her infant to another room.
D) building a nest to house an infant.
E) ingesting food.