Deck 10: Section 1: Managing Teams
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Deck 10: Section 1: Managing Teams
1
The hostile work environment form of sexual harassment occurs when employment outcomes such as hiring, promotion, or simply keeping one's job depend on whether an individual submits to being sexually harassed.
False
2
Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people for the company.
True
3
If an HR manager were allowed to use just one selection test, cognitive ability tests would be the one to use.
True
4
Validation is the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
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5
A job specification summarizes the basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, and a job description summarizes the qualifications needed to successfully perform the job.
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6
Full compliance with federal law is enough to ensure that an organization cannot incur liability in sexual harassment complaints.
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7
Cognitive ability tests are also called aptitude tests.
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8
Since interviews are especially good at assessing applicants' interpersonal skills, they work especially well together with cognitive ability tests, where the combination leads to even better selection decisions than using either alone.
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9
The only time gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).
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10
To choose the best training method, a company should consider such factors as the number of people to be trained, the cost of training, and the objectives of the training.
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11
In legal terms, intentional discrimination by an employer is identified as adverse impact while unintentional discrimination is called disparate treatment.
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12
Job analysis is a purposeful and systematic process of collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
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13
Disparate treatment and adverse impacts are defined in labor laws issued by the National Labor Relations Board.
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14
Piecework, sales commission, profit sharing, employee stock ownership plans, and stock options are common pay- variability options.
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15
Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
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16
Wrongful discharge is a legal doctrine that requires a manager to have the approval of the human resource manager to terminate employees.
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17
Training provides opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
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18
In setting their pay structures, companies use a procedure known as performance assessment, which determines the worth of each job by determining the market value of the knowledge, skills, and requirements needed to perform it.
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19
Once a company finishes the downsizing process, it should never need to downsize again.
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20
Job analyses, job descriptions, and job specifications help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job-related.
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21
________is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people for the company.
A) Functional resource planning
B) Human resource management
C) Work force forecasting
D) Recruiting
E) Human resource implementation
A) Functional resource planning
B) Human resource management
C) Work force forecasting
D) Recruiting
E) Human resource implementation
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22
Which of the following statements about federal employment law is true?
A) This body of law has not changed during the last two decades.
B) The intent of anti-discrimination law is to make factors such as gender, race, or age irrelevant in employment decisions.
C) Federal law prohibits the use of gender, race, and age as the basis for employment decisions under all circumstances.
D) All federal laws are administered by the Department of Labor.
E) Federal employment laws do not deal with training and development activities.
A) This body of law has not changed during the last two decades.
B) The intent of anti-discrimination law is to make factors such as gender, race, or age irrelevant in employment decisions.
C) Federal law prohibits the use of gender, race, and age as the basis for employment decisions under all circumstances.
D) All federal laws are administered by the Department of Labor.
E) Federal employment laws do not deal with training and development activities.
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23
The fact that a 98-pound job candidate is not hired as a dock worker to move 60-pound boxes of produce is legal as a result of________ .
A) the four-fifths rule
B) adverse impact rulings
C) bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
D) gender selectivity
E) benefits and features for occupational quality (BFOQs)
A) the four-fifths rule
B) adverse impact rulings
C) bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
D) gender selectivity
E) benefits and features for occupational quality (BFOQs)
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24
Engineered Fabrics makes bladders for airplane gas tanks. In the event of a puncture, the bladder will prevent the tank from exploding. The bladders must be defect-free. To check the bladders, company employees must be able to crawl in an 18-inch diameter hole in the bladder side and look for light leaks. A limitation on weight and height of individuals working in quality control at this company would be legal because it is an example of________ .
A) the four-fifths rule
B) adverse impact rulings
C) bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
D) gender selectivity
E) benefits and features of occupational quality (BFOQs)
A) the four-fifths rule
B) adverse impact rulings
C) bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
D) gender selectivity
E) benefits and features of occupational quality (BFOQs)
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25
From a legal perspective, there are two kinds of sexual harassment. They are________ .
A) quid pro quo and hostile work environment
B) hostile work environment and bona fide
C) adverse impact and bona fide
D) quid pro quo and bona fide
E) adverse impact and disparate treatment
A) quid pro quo and hostile work environment
B) hostile work environment and bona fide
C) adverse impact and bona fide
D) quid pro quo and bona fide
E) adverse impact and disparate treatment
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26
________is unintentional discrimination in which there is a substantially different rate of selection in hiring, promotion, or other employment decisions that works to the disadvantage of members of a particular race, sex, age, ethnicity, or protected group.
A) Disparate treatment
B) Adverse impact
C) Bona fide discrimination
D) Unsolicited discrimination
E) Demographic discrimination
A) Disparate treatment
B) Adverse impact
C) Bona fide discrimination
D) Unsolicited discrimination
E) Demographic discrimination
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27
To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does U.S. Federal employment law apply?
A) selection decisions
B) compensation decisions
C) performance appraisals
D) training and development activities
E) all of these
A) selection decisions
B) compensation decisions
C) performance appraisals
D) training and development activities
E) all of these
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28
When a CEO opened the nationwide sales force meeting with a crude sexually explicit joke it was an example of ____.
A) an unwelcome sexual advance
B) adverse impact discrimination
C) demographic discrimination
D) sexual harassment
E) disparate treatment
A) an unwelcome sexual advance
B) adverse impact discrimination
C) demographic discrimination
D) sexual harassment
E) disparate treatment
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29
Bona fide occupational qualifications would be most likely included in a(n) ________.
A) job specification
B) employee assignment list
C) labor resource guide
D) job description
E) task inventory
A) job specification
B) employee assignment list
C) labor resource guide
D) job description
E) task inventory
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30
________is the form of sexual harassment in which employment outcomes such as hiring, promotion, or simply keeping one's job depend on whether an individual submits to sexual harassment.
A) Bona fide sexual harassment
B) Quid pro quo sexual harassment
C) Adverse impact sexual harassment
D) Disparate gender treatment
E) Hostile work environment sexual harassment
A) Bona fide sexual harassment
B) Quid pro quo sexual harassment
C) Adverse impact sexual harassment
D) Disparate gender treatment
E) Hostile work environment sexual harassment
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31
Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
A) Only people who have themselves been harassed can file complaints or lawsuits.
B) Nonemployees cannot be guilty of sexual harassment.
C) Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex.
D) The three kinds of sexual harassment are quid pro quo, bona fide, and disparate treatment.
E) None of these statements about sexual harassment is true.
A) Only people who have themselves been harassed can file complaints or lawsuits.
B) Nonemployees cannot be guilty of sexual harassment.
C) Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex.
D) The three kinds of sexual harassment are quid pro quo, bona fide, and disparate treatment.
E) None of these statements about sexual harassment is true.
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32
The________ is a rule of thumb used by the courts and the EEOC to determine whether there is evidence of adverse impact. A violation of this rule occurs when the selection rate for a protected group is less than a specified level of the selection rate for a nonprotected group.
A) two-fifths rule
B) 80 percent rule
C) dysfunctional turnover rule
D) disparate treatment rule
E) principle of adverse impact
A) two-fifths rule
B) 80 percent rule
C) dysfunctional turnover rule
D) disparate treatment rule
E) principle of adverse impact
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33
Dysfunctional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees due to unplanned downsizing.
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34
Employee turnover is always bad for an organization.
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35
Former female employees of a national real estate brokerage firm claimed that they were subjected to lewd remarks, unwanted groping, and sexual propositions by male co-workers. According to their attorney, "The firm created a frat-house culture and then failed to do anything about it." Their suit claims the women were victims of ____.
A) disparate treatment
B) a hostile work environment
C) gender discrimination
D) quid pro quo sexual harassment
E) adverse treatment
A) disparate treatment
B) a hostile work environment
C) gender discrimination
D) quid pro quo sexual harassment
E) adverse treatment
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36
Two of the most important results of a job analysis are________ .
A) recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries
B) job descriptions and job specifications
C) rater training and selection validation
D) employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
E) employee-needs assessment and job mapping
A) recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries
B) job descriptions and job specifications
C) rater training and selection validation
D) employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
E) employee-needs assessment and job mapping
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37
________is intentional discrimination that occurs when people are purposefully not given the same hiring, promotion, or membership opportunities because of their race, sex, age, ethnic group, national origin, or religious beliefs.
A) Disparate treatment
B) Adverse harassment
C) The four-fifths rule
D) Deliberate negative reinforcement
E) Inequitable discrimination
A) Disparate treatment
B) Adverse harassment
C) The four-fifths rule
D) Deliberate negative reinforcement
E) Inequitable discrimination
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38
Darlene Jespersen worked in a sports bar. She was an outstanding employee, but she didn't wear makeup because she felt it "took away her credibility" and interfered with her ability to be an effective bartender, which sometimes required her to deal with unruly, intoxicated guests. This changed when the sports bar implemented a "beverage department image transformation" program. Female employees were told they would be fired if they did not wear makeup. Jespersen contended that it was an example of ________because male employees did not have to wear makeup.
A) disparate treatment
B) adverse harassment
C) the four-fifths rule
D) deliberate negative reinforcement
E) inequitable discrimination
Because male employees did not have to wear
A) disparate treatment
B) adverse harassment
C) the four-fifths rule
D) deliberate negative reinforcement
E) inequitable discrimination
Because male employees did not have to wear
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39
To ensure that sexual harassment laws are followed and not violated, companies should________ .
A) respond immediately when sexual harassment is reported
B) write a clear, understandable, strongly worded policy that is well publicized within the company
C) make sure they are acting in compliance with not only federal but also local laws
D) respect the privacy of the accused and the accusers
E) do all of these
A) respond immediately when sexual harassment is reported
B) write a clear, understandable, strongly worded policy that is well publicized within the company
C) make sure they are acting in compliance with not only federal but also local laws
D) respect the privacy of the accused and the accusers
E) do all of these
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40
The International Gay Rodeo Association (IGRA) began in 1976. By the end of the 1980s, gay rodeos were being held in more than a dozen states, and today there are 24 chapters that have raised millions for charity. But even the IGRA is not exempt from concerns about discrimination. To avoid claims of ________, straights are allowed to participate in all IGRA events.
A) bona fide discrimination
B) disparate treatment
C) gender selectivity
D) quid pro quo selectivity
E) hostile impact , straights are allowed to
A) bona fide discrimination
B) disparate treatment
C) gender selectivity
D) quid pro quo selectivity
E) hostile impact , straights are allowed to
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41
The first selection device most job applicants encounter when they seek a job are________ .
A) Internet sites and trade shows
B) recruitment centers and Internet sites
C) interviews and job application letters
D) help wanted ads
E) application forms and résumés
A) Internet sites and trade shows
B) recruitment centers and Internet sites
C) interviews and job application letters
D) help wanted ads
E) application forms and résumés
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42
Which of the following is a legal problem employers may encounter in seeking, providing, or using employment references as part of the selection process?
A) defamation lawsuits
B) adverse impact lawsuits
C) product liability lawsuits
D) accusations of disparate discrimination
E) accusations of reciprocity
A) defamation lawsuits
B) adverse impact lawsuits
C) product liability lawsuits
D) accusations of disparate discrimination
E) accusations of reciprocity
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43
In order to be considered________ , recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisals, and employee separations must be valid and be directly related to the important aspects of the job and identified by a careful job analysis.
A) employee related
B) reliable
C) concrete
D) competitive
E) job-related
A) employee related
B) reliable
C) concrete
D) competitive
E) job-related
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44
Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
A) employee referrals
B) career paths
C) walk-ins
D) employment services
E) advertisements
A) employee referrals
B) career paths
C) walk-ins
D) employment services
E) advertisements
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45
Which of the following questions is deemed acceptable (i.e., "legal") for employers to ask applicants during the selection process?
A) Are you a United States citizen?
B) Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
C) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
D) Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
E) None of these
A) Are you a United States citizen?
B) Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
C) Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
D) Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
E) None of these
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46
________are procedures used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves and to uncover negative, job-related background information not provided by applicants.
A) Integrity checks
B) Background checks
C) Recruitment evaluation procedures
D) Biographical data assessments
E) Validation tests
A) Integrity checks
B) Background checks
C) Recruitment evaluation procedures
D) Biographical data assessments
E) Validation tests
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47
A study in the construction industry found that when equipment is stolen from building sites, workers are the culprits 82 percent of the time. If background checks reduced employee thievery over a period of time and throughout the industry, then this selection process would be________ .
A) validation
B) EEOC certified
C) legally authorized
D) corroborated
E) legally binding
A) validation
B) EEOC certified
C) legally authorized
D) corroborated
E) legally binding
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48
The United Kingdom issued a new recruitment publication for the nation's Fire Service. The publication lists all of the qualifications needed to become a fire fighter. This recruitment pamphlet is actually a(n)________ .
A) job specification
B) task inventory
C) labor resource guide
D) job description
E) organizational chart
A) job specification
B) task inventory
C) labor resource guide
D) job description
E) organizational chart
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49
Which of the following statements about résumés and job application forms is true?
A) Résumés and job application forms provide the employer with distinctly different information for each candidate.
B) It is nearly impossible to check the information provided on résumés.
C) Employeerelated laws apply to job application forms and résumés.
D) Potential employees typically create résumés that honestly describe their work experiences.
E) There is international agreement on what type of information can be gathered on job application forms
A) Résumés and job application forms provide the employer with distinctly different information for each candidate.
B) It is nearly impossible to check the information provided on résumés.
C) Employeerelated laws apply to job application forms and résumés.
D) Potential employees typically create résumés that honestly describe their work experiences.
E) There is international agreement on what type of information can be gathered on job application forms
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50
Which of the following statements about job validation tests is true?
A) The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures recommend validation only for written tests used as selection procedures.
B) Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
C) A test is said to be valid when it produces the same results every time it is used.
D) In terms of recruitment, validation is most important in identifying what training prospective employees need.
E) None of these statements about validation is true.
A) The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures recommend validation only for written tests used as selection procedures.
B) Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
C) A test is said to be valid when it produces the same results every time it is used.
D) In terms of recruitment, validation is most important in identifying what training prospective employees need.
E) None of these statements about validation is true.
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51
Which of the following is an external recruiting method?
A) advertising
B) career paths
C) job posting
D) needs-assessment implementations
E) all of these
A) advertising
B) career paths
C) job posting
D) needs-assessment implementations
E) all of these
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52
Which of the following is an internal recruiting method?
A) advertising
B) job fairs
C) job posting
D) Internet job sites
E) walk-ins
A) advertising
B) job fairs
C) job posting
D) Internet job sites
E) walk-ins
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53
________help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job-related.
A) Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
B) Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping
C) Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
D) Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
E) Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
A) Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
B) Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping
C) Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
D) Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
E) Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
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54
Before beginning to recruit, organizations must________ .
A) advertise for job candidates
B) create a job description
C) conduct a job analysis
D) create a job specification
E) match salaries to industry averages
A) advertise for job candidates
B) create a job description
C) conduct a job analysis
D) create a job specification
E) match salaries to industry averages
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55
Estimates of from 2 percent to 20 percent of a taxicab company's driver workforce could result as new federal regulations requiring that all drivers be fingerprinted and the drivers checked to see if they have a criminal record. This new________ will cause a worsening problem for the already over-extended employer.
A) integrity check
B) background check
C) recruitment evaluation procedure
D) biographical data assessment
E) validation test
A) integrity check
B) background check
C) recruitment evaluation procedure
D) biographical data assessment
E) validation test
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56
"References Etc" will pose as a prospective employer, call a prior employer on an employee's behalf, and find out what the former employer is saying. If the prior employer provides unsubstantiated negative information, then the job applicant ________.
A) should not use the employee as a reference
B) must not list references on the job application
C) can sue for defamation
D) must lie on the job application form
E) must hire an HR expert to check their résumés
A) should not use the employee as a reference
B) must not list references on the job application
C) can sue for defamation
D) must lie on the job application form
E) must hire an HR expert to check their résumés
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57
________is the process of gathering information about job applicants to decide who should be offered a job.
A) Job validation
B) Pool enrichment
C) Recruiting
D) Selection
E) Job inventorying
A) Job validation
B) Pool enrichment
C) Recruiting
D) Selection
E) Job inventorying
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58
Which of the following statements about Internet recruiting is true?
A) Internet recruiting costs are considerably higher than traditional external recruiting methods.
B) The Internet allows companies to quickly reach large numbers of people.
C) The company will only receive applications from qualified people.
D) There are no drawbacks to Internet recruiting.
E) All of these are statements about Internet recruiting are true.
A) Internet recruiting costs are considerably higher than traditional external recruiting methods.
B) The Internet allows companies to quickly reach large numbers of people.
C) The company will only receive applications from qualified people.
D) There are no drawbacks to Internet recruiting.
E) All of these are statements about Internet recruiting are true.
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59
A study in the construction industry found that when equipment is stolen from building sites, workers are the culprits 82 percent of the time. Which type of selection information would employers in the construction industry receive the greatest benefit from if their goal is to stop employee theft?
A) résumés
B) performance appraisals
C) job descriptions
D) background checks
E) connotative ability tests
A) résumés
B) performance appraisals
C) job descriptions
D) background checks
E) connotative ability tests
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60
Which of the following types of information would typically be collected as part of a job analysis?
A) work activities
B) tools and equipment used
C) knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job
D) job context
E) all of these
A) work activities
B) tools and equipment used
C) knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job
D) job context
E) all of these
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61
Aptitude tests are also called________ .
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) work sample tests
E) job-related achievement tests
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) work sample tests
E) job-related achievement tests
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62
Which of the following training methods is most appropriate for imparting information or knowledge to trainees?
A) group discussions
B) lectures and planned readings
C) role-playing
D) case studies
E) coaching and mentoring
A) group discussions
B) lectures and planned readings
C) role-playing
D) case studies
E) coaching and mentoring
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63
Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) number of customer complaints
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) number of customer complaints
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64
________interviewing typically leads to much more accurate hiring decisions (i.e., correctly predicting which job applicants will perform better, and therefore should be hired).
A) Structured
B) Unstructured
C) Scripted
D) Formalized
E) Scenario
A) Structured
B) Unstructured
C) Scripted
D) Formalized
E) Scenario
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65
All job applicants for a position in an interior design company were given 10 swatches of fabrics of different colors and textures, 30 different paint chips, and 6 different floor treatments. They were then told to select the best fabric, paint, and floor treatment for an office. What type of selection test was used in this example?
A) biotesting
B) cognitive ability testing
C) environmental sensitivity testing
D) aptitude testing
E) personality testing
A) biotesting
B) cognitive ability testing
C) environmental sensitivity testing
D) aptitude testing
E) personality testing
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66
To improve traditional performance appraisal feedback sessions, it is recommended that managers________ .
A) combine developmental feedback and administrative feedback
B) strengthen the grading aspect of performance appraisal
C) base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals
D) use outsourcing
E) use either a halo or a recency measure
A) combine developmental feedback and administrative feedback
B) strengthen the grading aspect of performance appraisal
C) base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals
D) use outsourcing
E) use either a halo or a recency measure
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67
What is the primary advantage of the structured interview?
A) the amount of background information it reveals
B) its ability to substitute for biodata
C) all applicants are asked the same questions
D) its low costs
E) its validity
A) the amount of background information it reveals
B) its ability to substitute for biodata
C) all applicants are asked the same questions
D) its low costs
E) its validity
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68
Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is true?
A) Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.
B) Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation but not as a basis for determining who needs further training.
C) Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any problems associated with it do not affect organizations overall.
D) Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory performance appraisal.
E) All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
A) Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.
B) Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation but not as a basis for determining who needs further training.
C) Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any problems associated with it do not affect organizations overall.
D) Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory performance appraisal.
E) All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
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69
________ask raters to rate the frequency with which workers perform specific behaviors representative of the job dimensions that are critical to successful job performance.
A) Behavioral observation scales
B) Observational research studies
C) Performance rating scales
D) Objective performance measures
E) Trait rating scales
A) Behavioral observation scales
B) Observational research studies
C) Performance rating scales
D) Objective performance measures
E) Trait rating scales
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70
According to the text, if an employer were to use only one type of selection test________, would be the one to use.
A) achievement tests
B) personality tests
C) cognitive ability tests
D) work sample tests
E) biodata
A) achievement tests
B) personality tests
C) cognitive ability tests
D) work sample tests
E) biodata
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Unlock Deck
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71
Which of the following training methods is most appropriate when the objective of training is practicing, learning, or changing behaviors?
A) group discussions
B) planned readings and lectures
C) role-playing
D) case studies
E) films and videos
A) group discussions
B) planned readings and lectures
C) role-playing
D) case studies
E) films and videos
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Unlock for access to all 115 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
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72
Which of the following is one of the ways in which training can be evaluated?
A) reactions of employees
B) on how much employees learned
C) how much employees actually modified their on-the- job behavior
D) how job performance improved
E) all of these
A) reactions of employees
B) on how much employees learned
C) how much employees actually modified their on-the- job behavior
D) how job performance improved
E) all of these
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Unlock for access to all 115 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
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73
A perennial problem of teacher education programs is to screen the highest quality candidates from those who should not work in schools. One suggested method is to ask applicants a series of questions about their experiences with siblings, how they treat stress, their attitude toward procrastination, and ways they like to have fun. This method, which can use over 100 questions, gathers________ .
A) background data
B) validation material
C) work situation assessments
D) biodata
E) information on affective skills
A) background data
B) validation material
C) work situation assessments
D) biodata
E) information on affective skills
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74
A ________is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers, and co-workers as well as the employees themselves.
A) 360-degree feedback
B) performance appraisal iteration
C) reciprocal appraisal
D) grapevine appraisal
E) circular feedback program
A) 360-degree feedback
B) performance appraisal iteration
C) reciprocal appraisal
D) grapevine appraisal
E) circular feedback program
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75
The________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) informal
E) canned
A) formalized
B) structured
C) semi-structured
D) informal
E) canned
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76
What type of job interview might be used after a background question revealed the applicant had spent three years working in Africa convincing parents to allow their children to take polio vaccine?
A) canned
B) semistructured
C) tangential
D) creative
E) programmed
A) canned
B) semistructured
C) tangential
D) creative
E) programmed
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77
________means providing opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
A) Supervising
B) Directing
C) Training
D) Mentoring
E) Mediating
A) Supervising
B) Directing
C) Training
D) Mentoring
E) Mediating
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78
Which of the following is a direct (rather than indirect) measure of job applicants' capability to do the job?
A) creativity tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
A) creativity tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
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Unlock for access to all 115 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
79
Which of the following types of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
A) specific ability tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) personality tests
D) achievement tests
E) work sample tests
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Unlock for access to all 115 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
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80
Which of the following is an example of an objective performance measure?
A) performance analyses
B) behavioral observation scales
C) cognitive ability scales
D) input/output measures
E) all of these
A) performance analyses
B) behavioral observation scales
C) cognitive ability scales
D) input/output measures
E) all of these
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 115 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck